仪表等级口试难点知识点.doc

IFR Oral Questions难点知识点IFR Flight Time Requirementsa) 50 hours cross country as PIC (at least 10 in airplanes)b) 40 hours Instrument (actual or simulated)c) 15 hours instrument dual training from CFI (in same type)d) 3 hours instrument training within 60 days prior to teste) 250 NM cross-country conducted under IFR with 3 different types of approachesWhen is Instrument Rating required?a) On IFR Flight Planb) In Class A Airspacec) In weather conditions less than VFRd) Under special VFR within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas between sunset and sunrise (night)Recency-of-experience requirements for IFRa) 6 instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking of courses using navigation aids within the preceding six months.b) 3 take-offs and landings within preceding 90 days (full stop at night) to carry passengersc) Biennial flight reviewRequirements of safety pilota) Possess a current medical certificateb) Possess a private pilots license with appropriate category/class ratingsc) If flight is conducted on an IFR flight plan, safety pilot must have instrument ratingInfo a PIC must be familiar with before a flight All available information, including:a) weather reports and forecastsb) fuel requirementsc) alternatives if flight cannot be completed as plannedd) known ATC delayse) runaway lengths of intended usef) takeoff and landing distancesBefore conducting IFR flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what checks should be made?a) verify that GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for planned IFRb) verify that database is current (not expired)c) review the GPS NOTAM/RAIM information for planned route of flightPortable electronic devices on aircraftNot allowed, especially on commercial operators/carriers or any aircraft operated IFR.Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other portable electronic devices that will not cause interference with NAV/COM.How often is GPS waypoint information updated?Every 28 days, and maintained by National Flight Data Center (NFDC)When must pilot file an IFR flight plan?Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace: submit flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. File 30 minutes prior to departure to preclude delay in receiving departure clearance.What type of aircraft equipment determines your special equipment suffix when filing IFR?a) radar beacon transponderb) DME equipmentc) TACAN-only equipmentd) Area Navigation equipment (RNAV) - LORAN, INSe) Advanced Area Navigation equipment - Global Positioning System (GPS)/Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)f) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) authorizationBlock 7 of flight plan - altitude specified?Initial altitude, make subsequent requests to controller when in air*Alternate Airport Requirements*1-2-3 rule: Alternate required if from 1 hour before to 1 hour after forecast arrival at destination airport has 2000 foot ceilings and less than 3 SM visibility. Alternate requirements:a) If IAP is published for alternate, use those minimums, otherwise 600-2 (600 foot ceilings, 2 SM visibility) for Precision Approach, and 800-2 for Nonprecision Approachb) If no IAP has been published, ceiling and visibility minimums are those required for descent from MEA, approach, and land under basic VFRDefine ceilingHeight above Earths surface (AGL) of lowest cloud layer defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial.What are preferred routes, and where can they be found?Routes in high traffic areas that ATC designates to- and from- busy airports. Found in A/FDWhat are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts?Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL (under Class A). Revised every 56 days.What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts?Provide information for navigation above 18,000 feet MSL. Four-color chart series includes jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.What are area charts?Area charts show congested terminal areas such as Dallas/FW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found?NOTAMs as well as A/FDs will contain current limitationsWhat are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR-controller airspace?a) Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low frequency navigation receiver capabilityb) GPS anomalies while using IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receiversc) Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capabilityd) Impairment of air/ground communication capabilitye) Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate in IFRHow can IFR clearance be obtained?a) At airport with ATC tower in operation, clearance may be received from ground control or specific clearance delivery frequencyb) At airports without a tower or FSS on field, or in outlying area:- Clearance may be received over radio through remote communication outlet (RCO) or over telephone- Clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at airports within specific area, say Class B airspace- If above not available, clearance can be received from ARTCC once airborne as long as you stay in Class E airspace VFRAsk the nearest FSS for appropriate means.What does cleared as filed mean?ATC will issue abbreviated this statement of IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight planWhat does clearance void time mean?When operating from non-towered field, this is the time after which the IFR clearance is voided and pilot must report intentions to ATC (within 30 minutes)What does hold for release mean when included in IFR clearance?Delays the aircrafts departure for traffic management reasons. May not depart under IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATCMinimums necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135?Part 91: NoneOther Parts (assuming Takeoff Minimums not prescribed for that airport under Part 97): 1 SM visibility for aircraft with 2 engines or less, 1/2 SM for aircraft with 3 or more enginesWhat is good operating practice in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?Use the minima in the Instrument Approach Procedure for that airport. If none available, use basic VFR minimums (1000 feet ceilings, 3 miles)What are DPs and why are they necessary?Departure Procedures (DPs) are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearances from runway to enroute airway. Provides obstacle clearance protection and, at busier airports, increases efficiency by reducing communication and departure delays. Pilots under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available.What are two types of DPs?a) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) - textually/graphically,obstruction clearance via least burdensome route,No need for ATC clearance unless alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC.b) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) -always graphically,obstruction clearance and transition,system enhancement and reduce pilot/controller workload,ATC clearance must be received priorWhat criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?Based on:pilot crossing departure end of runway 35 ft above that elevation,climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turnmaintaining minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM (unless required to level off by crossing restriction). Gradient may vary based on obstacles.Where are DPs located?Listed by airport in IFR Take-Off Minimums and Departure Procedures, Section C of the Terminal Procedures PublicationsHow does pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport?A triangle T or trouble T (black triangle with a T inside it) will be placed in notes sections of the instrument procedure chart. Signifies non-standard take-off minimums.When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/NM, what significance should this have?There will be no obstacle departure procedure (ODP) if pilot can turn in any direction from a runway and remain clear of obstacles (satisfies diverse departure criteria). SID may be provided for ATC reasons. Otherwise, the DP was designed with a steeper than normal gradient or specifies departure route for purposes of avoiding obstacles near runway end.Climb gradient of 300 ft/NM at a ground speed of 100 knots requires what rate of climb?300 * (100/60) = 500 ft/minWhat is recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?Climb at Vy (or Vx if necessary) until 1000 feet below. Then 500-1500 fpm until assigned altitude is reached.(If ATC does not use At Pilots Discretion nor impose climb/descent restrictions, pilot should initiate change in altitude immediately upon acknowledgement of clearance).What are different methods of checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?a) VOR Test Signal (VOT) check; +/- 4 degb) Ground checkpoint; +/- 4 degc) Airborne checkpoint; +/- 6 degd) Dual VOR check; within 4 deg of each othere) Select a radial over a known ground point; +/- 6 degA repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only technician performing test can make an entry in the logbookWhat records must be kept concerning VOR checks?Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft logWhere can a pilot find the location of airborne/ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?A/FDWhat procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0 degrees FROM and 180 degrees TO (remember Cessna 182 - 180 TO for VOR accuracy checks using a VOT)Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required?In general, need Mode C Transponder when:a) At or above 10,000 feet MSL over contiguous US/DC, excluding airspace below 2,500 feet AGLb) Within 30 miles of Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSLc) Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSLd) Within 10 miles of certain airports, excluding that outside Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGLe) All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous US ADIZDiscuss transponder operation in the event of a two-way communications failureAdjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code 7600 (pilot should understand that aircraft might not be in area of radar coverage)Would an incorrect altimeter setting have an effect on Mode C altitude info transmitted by your transponder?No, since Mode C altitude info is preset to 29.92. Check your own altimeter if controller indicates that altitude readout is invalid.What are ALS, VASI, PAPI, and REIL?ALS - Approach Light SystemVASI - Visual Approach Slope IndicatorPAPI - Precision Approach Path IndicatorREIL - Runway End Identifier LightsWhat color are runway edge lights?White, except on instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2000 feet/half the runway length (whichever is less) as caution zoneWhat colors and color combinations are standard airport rotating beacons?Lighted land airport - White / GreenLighted sea airport - White / YellowMilitary airport - 2 White / GreenWhat does operation of rotating beacon at airport during daylight hours mean?In Class B, C, D, and E surface areas, operation of beacon during daylight indicates below VFR conditions (under 1000 ft ceilings, less than 3 SM visibility). ATC clearance then required to land, takeoff and fly in the traffic pattern.What are runway touchdown zone markings?Identify touchdown zone for landing - provides distance information in 500-ft increments (one, two, three rectangular bars arranged symmetrically in pairs about runway centerline).What is purpose of runway aiming point markings?Visual aiming point for landing aircraft. Two rectangular markings (broad white stripe, each side of centerline and approximately 1000 ft from landing threshold.How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?First 3000 feet of runway, beginning at threshold. (Used to determine touchdown zone elevation in the development of straight-in landing minimums for instrument approaches)What is RWSL?Runway Status Light System - fully automated system that provides runway status to pilots/surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross or takeoff from runway. Two statuses: ON - lights illuminated red, OFF - lights not illuminatedDoes lack of illumination of RWSL give a pilot permission to enter, cross, or takeoff from runway?No, RWSL is independent safety enhancement so you still need ATC clearance to do these things.What are important altitudes to know?MEA, MOCA, MCA, MRA, MAA, OROCAMEAMinimum En-Route Altitude:ensures acceptable navigational signals & obstacle clearanceMOCAMinimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude:ensures obstacle clearance requirements (on routes) & navigational signal coverage within 25 SM (22 NM) of VORMCAMinimum Crossing Altitude:lowest altitude at certain fixes at which aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEAMRAMinimum Reception Altitude:lowest altitude at which intersection can be determinedMAAMaximum Authorized Altitude:maximum usable altitude or flight level for route/airspace that ensures adequate reception of navaid signalsOROCAOff-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude:obstruction clearance by 1000 ft in non-mountainous terrain (2000 ft in mountainous terrain). May not provide signal coverage from ground-based navaids, ATC radar, or communications coverage.On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?Each and every point used to define that particular route.What are unpublished RNAV routes?Direct routes based on area navigation capability, between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes.What reports should be made to ATC at all times without a specific request?a) vacating any previously assigned altitude/FL for newly assigned oneb) altitude change will be made if operating on a VFR-On-Top clearancec) when unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 fpmd) When approach has been missed (request clearance for specific action; i.e. to alternate airport, another approach, etc)e) Change in average true speed (at cruise) when it varies by 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the flight planf) The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point that pilot is cleared tog) when leaving any assigned holding fix or pointh) any loss, in controlled airspace, of VOR, TACAN, ADF, low -frequency navigation receiver capability, GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of ground/air communications capabilityi) any information relating to the safety of flightj) upon encountering weather or hazardous conditions not forecastWhat reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact?a) When leaving FAF inbound on the final (nonprecision) approach, or when leaving the outer marker (corresponding fix) inbound on final (precision) approachb) A corrected estimate at anytime you realize that a previously estimated estimate is more than 3 minutes offExplain the terms maintain and cruise as they pertain to IFR altitude assignmentMaintain: maintain last altitude assignedCruise: assigns a block of airspace to pilot, from minimum IFR altitude up to and including altitude in cruise clearance. Pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude and climb/descent may be made at discretion of pilot. Once descends and verbally reports leaving altitude in the block, may not return to that altitude without additional clearance.Can a cruise clearance authorize you to execute an approach at the destination airport?Yes. ATC may issue cruise clearance that allows you to execute an approach upon arrival at destination airport.Why would pilot request a VFR-On-Top clearance?If in VFR conditions, pilot may want to be able to choose altitude based on reasons like turbulence, favorable winds aloft, etc. Applies also to pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel IFR flight plan or stay on VFR-On-Top Clearance, may request a climb to VFR-On-TopIs VFR-On-Top clearance a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance? Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top clearances?Yes it is IFR clearance. Class A prohibits such clearances.What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?a) Fly at appropriate altitudeb) Comply with the VFR visibility and d