2026年浙江省丽水市景宁畲族自治县初中毕业生学业水平适应性测试英语试题卷（含答案无听力原文及音频）

2026年初中毕业生学业水平适应性测试英语试题卷考生须知:1.试题卷包括四部分，共8页，满分120分。考试时间100分钟。2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题卷规定的位置上。3.答题时，请按照答题卷上“注意事项”的要求，在答题卷相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。第一部分听力理解（共15小题；满分20分）第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Howistheweathertoday?A.It’ssnowy.B.It’swindy.C.It’srainy.2.Whendoestheconcertbegin?A.At8:00.B.At8:15.C.At8:30.3.Whosedictionarycoulditbe?A.Cindy’s.B.Tom’s.C.Lily’s.4.Wheredoestheconversationprobablytakeplace?A.Inaclothesstore.B.Inaflowershop.C.Inarestaurant.5.Whatisthegirlgoingtodo?A.Towatchamovie.B.Togetsomefood.C.Toshopforgifts.第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。6.Howmanylanguagescanthesmartguidespeak?A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.7.Whatdoesthegirlthinkoftherobots?A.New.B.Noisy.C.Helpful.听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。8.WhyisDavesad?A.Hethinkstheteamlost.B.Hestayeduptoolate.C.Hecouldn’twatchthegame.9.WhatdidDavehavelastnight?A.Someice-cream.B.ACoke.C.Apizza.10.What’sNancy’ssuggestiontoDave?A.Eatingsomething.B.Goingonline.C.Playinggames.第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。11.WhenwilltheEnglishFestivalbeheld?A.OnMay5th.B.OnMay12th.C.OnMay15th.12.Whatwillthestudentsdointheshow?A.Readpoems.B.Writearticles.C.Takeawalk.13.Whowillbeinvitedtotheshow?A.Alltheparents.B.Alltheteachers.C.Allthefriends.14.Whichruleshouldstudentsfollow?A.Don’trun.B.Bringsomesnacks.C.Don’ttakephotos.15.Howlongwilltheshowlast?A.Foronehour.B.Fortwohours.C.Forthreehours.第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）第一节阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。HistoryTie-dyeingisanoldartwithahistoryofover1,500years,anditbecamemostpopularintheTangDynasty.Today,insomepartsofYunnanProvince,localpeoplestillusetraditionaltie-dyeingmethodstomakedifferentproductslikescarves,clothesandbags.Materials&Toolsapieceofclothrollsofthread(线)abowlofhotwaternaturaldyesfromplantsHowtomakeit1.Twist(拧)apieceofclothandtieitwiththread.2.Puttheclothintoabigbowlofdyeandmoveitaroundinthedyeforafewminutes.3.Taketheclothoutofthedyeandletitdryinthesun.4.Whenitisdry,untietheclothandseetheamazingpatterns.16.Whendidtie-dyeingbecomemostpopular?A.IntheTangDynasty.B.IntheSongDynasty.C.IntheYuanDynasty.D.IntheMingDynasty.17.Whataretherightstepstotie-dyeaT-shirt?A.①③②④B.②③④①C.②④③①D.①④②③18.Inwhichpartofamagazinecanyouprobablyreadthetext?A.HistoricalEvents.B.TraditionalArt.C.NewTechnology.D.SportsNews.BBothmywifeandIarerunninglovers.Iusuallyrunonthetrack(跑道)inmyneighbourhood.Mostpeoplewalkonthetrack,soIamfasterthanthem.MyspeedseemsamazingtothewalkersandIoftenpassbythemtwentyormoretimesaroundthetrack.Thismakesmefeelproud.Oneday,ashortmancame.Hedidn’tlooklikemuchofarunner.IsawhimgetoutofthecarandwarmupbeforerunningwhenIpassedbytwowalkers.Hestartedrunningafewmetersaheadofme.HewasfastbutItriedtocatchupwithhim.Ihadsomeonetocompetewith.Butafteralap(圈),Ifellbehindhimandhadgreatdifficultyinbreathing.Aftertwolaps,myfootbegantohurt,soIhadtoslowdownandbegantorunatmyusualspeed.ThistimeIcouldbreatheagainwithoutsoundinglikeIhadalungdiseaseandthepaininmyfootwentaway.Inaveryshorttime,hewasfarahead.Hewastoofastformetofollow.Thatday,Ilearnedseverallessons.Inlife,therewillalwaysbethoseslowerandfaster.Somehavenaturaltalent,andsomehavetrainedharder.Don’tjudgetheabilityofapersonbyhowheorshelooks.Thepointisthatweeachhaveourownspeed.Whenwearetryingtokeepup,weoftenenduphurtingourselvesandbeingoutofbreath.Slowdownorspeedup,butrunyourracetoyourbest.Don’trunatallwhenyoushouldbewalking.Don’twalkwhenyoushouldberunning.19.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“This”referto?A.Lovingrunning.B.Learningseverallessons.C.Runningwithneighbors.D.Passingbyothersmanytimes.20.Whatdidthewriterthinkoftheshortmanatfirst?A.Hewasanamazingrunner.B.Hewasanexperienceddriver.C.Hewasn’tgoodatrunning.D.Hewastooproudofhimself.21.Whathappenedtothewriterwhenhesloweddown?A.Hisbreathbecamemuchheavier.B.Hisfootdidn’thurtanymore.C.Hesoundedlikehehadanillness.D.Hestartedtohaveapaininhisfoot.22.Whatcanwelearnfromthetext?A.Everyonehashisorherownspeedinlife.B.It’snecessarytokeepupwithothersinlife.C.Slowrunnerscannevercatchupwithfastones.D.Wecanjudgeaperson’sabilitybyhisorherlooks.CBird-watchingismorethanjustahobby;itisabridgebetweenhumansandnature.ForJamesSpeirs,a38-year-oldbird-watcherinHongKong,thisbeliefhasguidedhisloveforbirding(观鸟).SpeirslivedinBeijingbeforemovingtoHongKong.HisloveforbirdsdatesbacktohischildhoodinSouthAfrica.However,heonlytookthishobbymoreseriouslyduringtheCOVID-19pandemic,whenbirdingbecamepopularworldwide.Oneday,SpeirsheardtheclearcallofahoopoeatBeijing’sOlympicForestPark.It’sabirdhehadalwaysconnectedwithAfricansafaris(观兽旅行)“IhadnoideahoopoescouldbefoundinChina,soitwasamazingtoseethesamebirdthousandsofkilometersawayfromitsAfricanhabitat.hesaid.AkeypartofSpeirs’bird-watchingjourneyishisworkincitizenscience,largelythrougheBird,anappdevelopedbyCornellUniversityintheUS.“Itallowspeoplearoundtheworldtorecordthebirdstheysee,checkbirdinghotspotsandfindoutwhichspeciesmightseeinonearea.”AsintroducedoneBird’sofficialwebsite,everyrecordedsightingprovidesvaluabledataforscientificresearch.Throughhishobby,Speirshasdevelopedadeeperunderstandingofbirdsandnature.“ThemostsurprisingthingI’velearnedishowfarbirdstravel:AbirdIseeinHongKongtodaymightbeinBeijinginjustafewdaysandtheArcticCircleinafewweeks,”hesaid.Thisideahasgreatlyraisedhisenvironmentalawareness:“Earthworksasonesystem,andwhathappensinoneplacecaninfluenceplacesfaraway.Itisourresponsibilitytoprotecttheenvironment.”23.WhatmadeJamesSpeirsstarttotakebird-watchingmoreseriously?A.HischildhoodlifeinSouthAfrica.B.TheclearcallofahoopoeinBeijing.C.HismovefromBeijingtoHongKong.D.ThepopularityofbirdingduringCOVID-19.24.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“habitat”inParagraph3mostprobablymean?A.Theplacewhereanimalslive.B.Thewaybirdsfly.C.Thetimebirdsstayoutside.D.Thefoodthatbirdseat.25.WhatdoweknowabouteBirdfromthetext?A.It’sanapponlyforprofessionalscientists.B.Ithelpscollectdataforscientificresearch.C.ItwasdevelopedbyauniversityinChina.D.Itmainlyshowspeoplehowtoprotectbirds.26.What’sthewriter’spurposeinwritingthetext?A.Toteachpeoplehowtowatchbirds.B.ToencouragepeopletousetheeBirdapp.C.Tointroduceabird-watcherandhisstory.D.Tocallonpeopletoliveinpeacewithnature.DWouldyouliketoimproveyourmemory?Tostartwith,itisimportanttounderstandhowmemoryworks.Therearetwomainkindsofmemory:short-termmemoryandlong-termmemory.Short-termmemoryhelpsyourememberthingsthatyoumayonlyneedforashorttime,likephonenumberswhenyouneedtomakeaphonecall.Long-termmemoryistheabilitytorememberthingsfordays,years,orevenalifetime.Sotherealquestionis:Howdoyoumakesurewhatyoulearnentersyourlong-termmemory?Byusingsomeclevermemorytechniquesandleadingahealthylife,youwillseesomegreatresults.Let’stakealook.First,payattention.However,youmightfailtorememberallthedetails.So,trytakingnotesandwritingdownkeypoints.Afterall,itiseasiertorememberasummarythaneverywordinapassage.Second,useitorloseit.Themoreyoureviewwhatyoulearn,themorelikelyyouwillrememberit.However,youshouldnotwearoutyourbrain.Trystudyingfor40minutes,andthentakeabreak.Youcanalsoreviewinformationbydiscussingitwithothersorbyteachingothers.Athirdwayistomakeuseofsenses.Createimagesbyusingtables,graphs,andmindmapstoorganizeinformation.Youcanalsocreateastorywithinformationandviewitinyourmindlikeafilm.Inaddition,makeuseofyourothersenses.Forexample,listeningtorecordedinformationcanbeveryhelpful.Lastbutnotleast,improveyourmemorybystayinghealthy.-Sleepwell.Whileyousleep,yourbrainorganizesyourmemories.Badsleepmakesitharderfornewinformationtoenteryourlong-termmemory.-Eatwell.Yourbrainneedsfoodlikeanengineneedsfuel.Healthyfoodanddrinkwillhelpyourbrainworkmuchbetter.-Exercise.Ahealthyandactivebodyimprovebothyourmemoryandyourmind.Manymorememorytechniquescanbefoundinbooksoronline.Trysomedifferentmethodstoseewhichonesworkbestforyou.Youaresuretoimproveyourmemory!27.Howdoesthewriterleadinthetopic?A.Bytellingastory.B.Byaskingaquestion.C.Bylistingnumbers.D.Bycomparingtwofacts.28.Whichofthefollowingbelongstolong-termmemory?A.Rememberingaspeechtextfornextweek.B.Rememberinganaddressbeforewritingitdown.C.Rememberingastranger’sfaceforashorttime.D.Rememberingaphonenumberbeforemakingaphonecall.29.Howmanymemorytechniquesarementionedaccordingtothepassage?A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.D.Five.30.Whichcanbethebesttitleforthepassage?A.HealthyLifeandMemoryB.HowtoImproveYourMemoryC.DifferentKindsofMemoryD.TheAdvantagesofLong-termMemory第二节任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入第31-34小题，并回答第35小题。GoodnewsforstudentsinChina!Manyschoolsaremakingchangestotheirclassbreaks.ManyprimaryandsecondaryschoolsindifferentChinesecitieshavemadeclassbreakslonger,from10to15minutes,startingfrom2025.__31__Inthepast,schoolsinChinausuallyhad10-minutebreaksbetweenclasses.Thiswasnotenoughtimeforstudents,particularlythoseintallbuildings,togooutsideandplay.Sometimes,schoolsevenstoppedstudentsfromleavingtheclassroomduringbreaksforsafetyreasons.Now,localeducationdepartmentsaretryingtomakeschoolschedulesbetter,sostudentscandoatleast30minutesofphysicalexerciseeveryday.CitieslikeBeijing,Tianjin,andQingdaohavealreadymadebreakslonger.InBeijing,studentsnowgetlongerbreaks.__32__Primarykidsstillstartandfinishatthesametime.Secondaryschoolstudentsjustfinish5minuteslater.SchoolsinYunyanDistrictandNanmingDistrict,Guiyang,alsohave15-minutebreaksnow.__33__Studentsmustdoatleast100minutesofphysicalexerciseatschooleachday.Thishelpsthemdomoreoutdooractivitiesandsocialize.Theeducationdepartmenttherealsosaysnotostartingclassestooearlyandstoppingstudentsfromdoingthingsduringbreaks.__34__Thesechangesaregreatforstudents’healthandhappiness.Moreoutdooractivitiesandexercisewillmakeschoollifemorefunandenjoyable!A.Buttheirschooldaydoesn’tchangemuch.B.Itwantstogivebreaktimebacktothestudents.C.Studentsdon’tliketostudyintallbuildingsduringbreaks.D.TheyalsomakesurestudentshaveoneP.E.classeveryday.E.Thischangeistoencouragestudentsandteacherstodomoreoutdooractivities.35.Whatdoyouusuallydoduring15-minutebreaksbetweenclasses?（不超过15词）________________________________________________第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分40分）第一节完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。Thereisaspecialjug(罐)onourkitchentable.Nextto__36__,Ialwaysleavesomesmallpiecesofpaperandapen.Anyoneinmyfamilycan__37__somethinggoodthathashappenedrecently.Sinceitisfilledwithhappymoments,we__38__itthe“GoodThingsJug”.Lotsofgoodlittlethingshappeninourlifeeveryyear.Attheendofeachyear,ourfamilymembersgettogetherandemptythejug__39__.Wetaketurnstoreadthosewarmstoriesaloudonebyone.Somearefunnyandinteresting,somearemeaningfulandserious,andsomegiveusgreat__40__.Overthepasttwelvemonths,ourfamilyhasmetplentyofhardanddifficultdays.__41__,recordingthosegoodmomentshashelpedusgothroughthehardtimesmoothly.Herearesomewarmnotes__42__fromourGoodThingsJug.“JimandIwent__43__withourparentslastweekend.Weevenplayedwithourlovelypetdoginthewater.”“Thankstomyparents’carefulcare,Ibecame__44__againafteraseriousillness.I’mtruly__45__tothemfortheirselflesslove.Itisoneofthebest__46__inmylife.”“Luckily,Dadfoundamuch__47__jobandwefeltreallyhappy.”Ourspecialjugisfullof__48__,love,andhopeallyearround.It__49__usthatgoodthingsarealwaysaroundus,evenduringdifficulttimes.SoIstronglyencourageyouto__50__yourownGoodThingsJug.I’msureitwillbringwarmthandchangestoyourdailylife.36.A.itB.themC.usD.me37.A.putdownB.cutdownC.writedownD.turndown38.A.callB.drawC.giveD.take39.A.happilyB.quietlyC.lonelyD.angrily40.A.sadnessB.hopeC.challengeD.trouble41.A.BesidesB.AlsoC.HoweverD.Still42.A.hiddenB.pickedC.borrowedD.bought43.A.shoppingB.skatingC.campingD.swimming44.A.sickB.weakC.healthyD.tired45.A.politeB.thankfulC.friendlyD.helpful46.A.giftsB.prizesC.lettersD.toys47.A.worseB.busierC.harderD.better48.A.fearB.doubtC.joyD.trouble49.A.promisesB.ordersC.warnsD.reminds50.A.buyB.createC.forgetD.sell第二节词汇运用（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）A.将方框中所给词的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。insteadherselflucktakecareofthingrelaxedMymumismyrolemodel.She’salwayscheerfulaboutlife,andmakes__51__anamazingpersonbothathomeandatwork.Athome,she__52__ourfamilywithgreatlove.Sheknowseveryone’stasteandcooksdeliciousmeals.Shelikestospendtimewithuswheneverpossibleandmakeseveryonewarm,__53__andhappy.She’spatientandlistenstomewhenIneedsomeonetotalkto.Atwork,peoplereallylikeherbecausesheisalwayshelpfulandeasytoworkwith.Sheneversays“no”todifficulttasks.__54__,shethinksofcreativewaystocompleteit.Shekeepslearningnew__55__tostayupdatedwithknowledge.I’m__56__tohavesucharolemodel.Mumshowsmehowtobepositive.IadmireheralotandwanttobelikeherwhenIgrowup.B.阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式。（每空一词）Chinesecultureisoneoftheoldestintheworld,fullofrichtraditionsandbeliefs.Manythingsyousee,hearoreventasteinChinacarryspecial__57__(意义).Dragonsareakeysymbol.InmanyWesternstories,dragonsarescarymonsters.However,peopleinChinaarenot__58__(害怕)ofthematall.Instead,theyseedragonsasasymbolofpowerandgoodluck.Chinesedragonsaresopopularthatyoucanfindthem__59__(到处)-onvases,buildings,money,clothes,andpaintings.Thewordfor“dragon”even__60__(出现)inpeople’snames.Forexample,thephrase“tohopethatone’schildrenbecomedragons”meansparentswishtheirchildrenabrightand__61__(成功)future.Chinesepeoplearesoproudofthissymbolthattheycallthemselves“thedescendantsofthedragon”.Redis__62__(另一)powerfulsymbol.InChina,itisbelievedthatredbringsgoodluckand__63__(财富).Youwillseereddecorationslikepaper-cuts,coupletsandlanternsduringfestivalssuchastheChineseNewYear.Peoplealsowearredclothesatcelebrations,__64__(尤其)attraditionalweddings.Redalsostandsfor__65__(重要性)suchasredcarpetsinmanysituations.第三节语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。InasmallvillagecalledWuyinginShangqiu,awarmstoryhastouchedmanypeopleonline.AyoungpaintercalledWuChengyanusedhisarttohelpvillageeldersrealizeadreamtheyhadkept__66__manyyears.ManyoldpeopleinthevillagealwayswantedtovisitTian’anmenSquare,__67__becauseofageandhealth,theycouldnottravelfar.Afterknowingabouttheirstories,Wudecided__68__(paint)Tian’anmenonavillagewall.He__69__(spend)fivedaysfinishingahugewallpaintingthatwas18meterslongand8metershigh.He__70__(careful)paintedtheredflags,thebuildings,andthegrandview.Whenthepainting__71__(finish),Wuinvitedtheelderstoseeitfirst.Someof__72__(they)smiled,andsomewereevenmovedtotears.__73__81-year-ol