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1、FRMPart II2017Practice ExamFinancial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice ExamTable of ContentsIntroduction to 2017 FRM Part II Practice Exam22017 FRM Part II Practice Exam Statistical Reference Table42017 FRM Part II Practice Exam Special Instructions and Definitions52017 FRM Part II Pra

2、ctice Exam Candidate Answer Sheet62017 FRM Part II Practice Exam Questions72017 FRM Part II Practice Exam Answer Key412017 FRM Part II Practice Exam Answers & Explanations42VER 11/18/16 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in an

3、y format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice ExamIntroductionThe FRM Exam is a practice-oriented examination. Its questions are derived from a combination of theory, as set forth in the core r

4、eadings, and “real-world” work experience. Candidates are expected to understand risk management concepts and approaches and how they would apply to a risk managers day-to-day activities.The FRM Exam is also a comprehensive examination, testing a risk professional on a number of risk management conc

5、epts and approaches. It is very rare that a risk manager will be faced with an issue that can immediately be slotted into one category. In the real world, a risk manager must be able to identify any number of risk-related issues and be able to deal with them effectively.The 2017 FRM Part I and Part

6、II Practice Exams have been developed to aid candidates in their preparation for the FRM Exam in May and November 2017. These Practice Exams are based on a sample of questions from prior FRM Exams and are suggestive of the questions that will be in the 2017 FRM Exam.The 2017 FRM Part I Practice Exam

7、 contains 100 multiple-choice questions and the 2017 FRM Part II Practice Exam contains 80 multiple-choice questions, the same number of questions that the actual 2017 FRM Exam Part I and 2017 FRM Exam Part II will contain. As such, the Practice Exams were designed to allow candidates to calibrate t

8、heir preparedness both in terms of material and time.The 2017 FRM Practice Exams do not necessarily cover all topics to be tested on the 2017 FRM Exam as any test will sample from the universe of testable possible knowledge points. However, the questions selected for inclusion in the Practice Exams

9、were chosen to be broadly reflective of the material assigned for 2017 as well as to represent the style of question that the FRM Committee considers appropriate based on assigned material.For a complete list of current topics, core readings, and key learning objectives candidates should refer to th

10、e 2017 FRM Exam Study Guide and 2017 FRM Learning Objectives.Core readings were selected by the FRM Committee to assist candidates in their review of the subjects covered by the Exam. Questions for the FRM Exam are derived from the core readings. It is strongly suggested that candidates study these

11、readings in depth prior to sitting for the Exam.Suggested Use of Practice ExamsTo maximize the effectiveness of the practice exams, candidates are encouraged to follow these recommendations:1. Plan a date and time to take the practice exam.Set dates appropriately to give sufficient study/review time

12、 for the practice exam prior to the actual exam.2. Simulate the test environment as closely as possible.Take the practice exam in a quiet place.Have only the practice exam, candidate answer sheet, calculator, and writing instruments (pencils, erasers) available.Minimize possible distractions from ot

13、her people, cell phones, televisions, etc.; put away any study material before beginning the practice exam.Allocate 4 hours to complete FRM Part I Practice Exam and 4 hours to complete FRM Part II Practice Exam and keep track of your time. The actual FRM Exam Part I and FRM Exam Part II are 4 hours

14、each. 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.2Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice ExamComplete the entire ex

15、am and answer all questions. Points are awarded for correct answers. There is no penalty on the FRM Exam for an incorrect answer.Follow the FRM calculator policy. Candidates are only allowed to bring certain types of calculators into the exam room. The only calculators authorized for use on the FRM

16、Exam in 2017 are listed below, there will be no exceptions to this policy. You will not be allowed into the exam room with a personal calculator other than the following: Texas Instruments BA II Plus (including the BA II Plus Professional), Hewlett Packard 12C (including the HP 12C Platinum and the

17、Anniversary Edition), Hewlett Packard 10B II, Hewlett Packard 10B II+ and Hewlett Packard 20B.3.After completing the FRM Practice ExamsCalculate your score by comparing your answer sheet with the practice exam answer key.Use the practice exam Answers and Explanations to better understand the correct

18、 and incorrect answers and to identify topics that require additional review. Consult referenced core readings to prepare for the exam.Remember: pass/fail status for the actual exam is based on the distribution of scores from all candidates, so use your scores only to gauge your own progress and lev

19、el of preparedness. 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.3Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice Exam 2016 Gl

20、obal Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.4Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice ExamSpecial Instructions and Definition

21、sUnless otherwise indicated, interest rates are assumed to be continuously compounded.Unless otherwise indicated, option contracts are assumed to be on one unit of the underlying asset. VaR = value-at-riskES = expected shortfallGARCH = generalized auto-regressive conditional heteroskedasticity EWMA

22、= exponentially weighted moving averageCAPM = capital asset pricing model LIBOR = London interbank offer rate OIS = overnight indexed swapCDS = credit-default-swap(s)CCP = central counterparty or central clearing counterparty MBS = mortgage-backed-security(securities)CDO = collateralized debt obliga

23、tion(s) ERM = enterprise risk management RAROC = risk-adjusted return on capital bp(s) = basis point(s)The CEO, CFO, CIO, and CRO are the chief executive, financial, investment, and risk officers, respectively.The following acronyms are used for selected currencies:1.2.3.4.5.6.7.8.9.10.11.12.13.14.1

24、5.16.17.18. 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.5AcronymCurrencyINRIndian rupeeJPYJapanese yenMXNMexican pesoSGDSingapore dolla

25、rUSDUS dollarAcronymCurrencyAUDAustralian dollarCADCanadian dollarCNYChinese yuanEUReuroGBPBritish pound sterlingFinancial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice Exam2017 FRM Part I Practice Exam Candidate Answer Sheet1.2.3.4.5.6.7.8.9.10.11.12.13.14.15.16.17.18.19.20.21.22.23.24.25.26.27.2

26、8.29.30.31.32.33.34.35.36.37.38.39.40.41.42.43.44.45.46.47.48.49.50.51.52.53.54.55.56.57.58.59.60.61.62.63.64.65.66.67.68.69.70.71.72.73.74.75.76.77.78.79.80.81.82.83.84.85.86.87.88.89.90.91.92.93.94.95.96.97.98.99.100. 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illega

27、l to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.6Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice Exam1.An investment bank with an active position in commodity futures is using the peaks-over-threshold (POT) me

28、thodology for estimating VaR and ES. The banks risk managers have set a threshold level of 3.00% to evaluate excess losses. The choice of the threshold, they argue, is suitable and consistent with the finding that 5.00% of the observations are in excess of the threshold value. The risk managers have

29、 concluded that the positions VaR using the POT measure is 4.45% at 99% confidence level. The VaR estimate incorporates the following assumptions generated from the managers empirical analysis:Given the VaR value and the parameter assumptions, which of the following is correct?A. Increasing the valu

30、e of the tail index lowers both the ES and the VaRB. Increasing the loss threshold level increases both the ES and the VaRC. The value of ES is 4.57%D. The value of ES is 5.71%A risk manager is estimating the market risk of a portfolio using both the normal distribution and the lognormal distributio

31、n assumptions. The manager gathers the following data on the portfolio:2.Annual mean: 15%Annual volatility: 35%Current portfolio value: EUR 4,800,000 Trading days in a year: 252Which of the following statements is correct?A. Lognormal 95% VaR is less than normal 95% VaR at the 1-day holding period b

32、y 0.13%B. Lognormal 95% VaR is less than normal 95% VaR at the 1-year holding period by 7.91%C. Lognormal 99% VaR is less than normal 99% VaR at the 1-day holding period by 1.43%D. Lognormal 99% VaR is less than normal 99% VaR at the 1-year holding period by 13.86% 2016 Global Association of Risk Pr

33、ofessionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.7ParameterSymbolValueLoss thresholdu3%Number of observationsN740Number of observations that exceed thresholdn37Scale0.75Shape

34、 (tail index)0.22Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice Exam3.A risk team at an investment bank uses the KMV model to estimate the distance to default and expected default frequency in evaluating default conditions of both potential and existing client firms. One such client curre

35、ntly has total assets valued at USD 20 billion, asset volatility of 28% per annum, short-term debt of USD 7 billion, and long- term debt of USD 6 billion. The expected return on the firms assets is 5% per year and the risk free rate is 1% per year. The firm does not pay any dividends. The rating sch

36、edule at a 1-year horizon is shown in the table below:What is the suggested credit rating of the firm at a 1-year horizon using the rating schedule provided?A. AA/AB. A/BBB+C. BBB+/BBB-D. BBB-/BBA risk manager is comparing the use of parametric and non-parametric approaches for calculating VaR and i

37、s concerned about some of the characteristics present in the loss data. Which of the following conditions would make non-parametric approaches the favored method to use?4.A. Scarcity of high magnitude loss eventB. Skewness in the distributionC. Unusually high volatility during the data periodD. Unus

38、ually low volatility during the data period 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.8Expected Default Frequency (EDF)Rating Class0.

39、02% 0.04%AAA0.04% 0.10%AA/A0.10% 0.19%A/BBB+0.19% 0.40%BBB+/BBB-0.40% 0.72%BBB-/BB0.72% 1.01%BB/BB-Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice Exam5.LMT Bank has entered into a 1-year CDS contract with an endowment fund. According to the contract, LMT Bank will pay the endowment fund 7

40、5% of the face value of a bond issued by GTE Chemical Corporation immediately after a default by GTE Chemical. To purchase this CDS, the endowment fund will pay LMT Bank the CDS spread, which is a percentage of the face value, once at the end of the year. LMT Bank estimates that the risk-neutral def

41、ault probability for GTE Chemical is 6% per year. The risk-free rate is 3% per year. Assuming defaults can only occur halfway through the year and that the accrued premium is paid immediately after a default, what is the estimate for the CDS spread?A. 457 basis pointsB. 471 basis pointsC. 468 basis

42、pointsD. 628 basis points6.A risk analyst at a mid-size hedge fund is evaluating the credit risk of several trade positions. The hedge fund specializes in corporate debt and runs a strategy that utilizes both relative value and long-only trades using CDS and bonds. One of the new trades at the hedge

43、 fund is a BBB-rated long bond valued at JPY 10 billion. Some of the hedge funds newest clients, including the BBB-rate bond holders, are restricted from withdrawing their funds for four years. The analyst is currently evaluating the impact of various default scenarios to estimate future asset liqui

44、dity. The analyst has estimated that the marginal probability of default of the BBB-rated bond is 5% in Year 1, 8% in Year 2, 15% in Year 3, and 24% in Year 4. What is the probability that the bond makes coupon payments for 4 years and then defaults at the end of Year 4?A.7.6%B.13.1%C.17.8%D.20.4% 2

45、016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.9Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice Exam7.MDM Bank is seeking to enha

46、nce its enterprise risk management function. In order to achieve that objective the bank introduces a new decision-making process based on economic capital that involves assessing sources of risk across different business units and organizational levels. Which of the following statements regarding t

47、he correlations between these risks is correct?A. Correlations between business units are only relevant in deciding total firm-wide economic capital levels and are not relevant for decisions at the individual business unit or project level.B. Correlations between broad risk types such as credit, mar

48、ket, and operational risk are generally well understood and are easy to estimate at the individual firm level.C. The introduction of correlations into firm-wide risk evaluation will result in a total VaR that, in general, is greater than or equal to the sum of individual business unit VaRs.D. The in

49、troduction of correlations into the risk evaluation of a banks loan book will result in total credit VaR that, in general, is less than or equal to the sum of individual loan credit VaRs.8.A pension fund has reported that its assets and liabilities were valued at USD 840 million and USD 450 million,

50、 respectively, at year-end 2015. The assets were fully invested in equities and commodities. The funds liabilities, constituted entirely by fixed-income obligations, had a modified duration of 12 years. In 2016, the global slump in commodity prices affected the pension fund assets, specifically caus

51、ing its investment in equities and commodities to lose 30% of their market value. However, the surprising monetary policy action of the government that led to the increase in interest rates had a positive effect on the performance of fixed-income securities, causing yields on the funds liabilities t

52、o rise by 2.3%. What was the change in the pension funds surplus in 2016?A. USD -325.8 millionB. USD -127.8 millionC. USD 262.2 millionD. USD 390.0 million9.A wealth management firm has a portfolio consisting of USD 48 million invested in US equities and USD 35 million invested in emerging markets e

53、quities. The 1-day 95% VaR for each individual position is USD 1.2 million. The correlation between the returns of the US equities and emerging markets equities is 0.36. While rebalancing the portfolio, the manager in charge decides to sell USD 8 million of the US equities to buy USD 8 million of th

54、e emerging markets equities. At the same time, the CRO of the firm advises the portfolio manager to change the risk measure from 1-day 95% VaR to 10-day 99% VaR. Assuming that returns are normally distributed and that the rebalancing does not affect the volatility of the individual equity positions,

55、 by how much will the portfolio VaR increase due to the combined effect of portfolio rebalancing and change in risk measure?A. USD 6.870 millionB. USD 8.248 millionC. USD 11.270 millionD. USD 12.482 million 2016 Global Association of Risk Professionals. All rights reserved. It is illegal to reproduce this material in any format without prior written approval of GARP, Global Association of Risk Professionals, Inc.10Financial Risk Manager Examination (FRM) Part II Practice E

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