生理考前必做题

Terminal Examination of Physiology (A) I. Select the Correct Answer (1 mark each, 40 in total) 1.Extracellular fluid was termed “ Internal Environment” of the human body by A.Claude Bernard B. Harvey C. Pavlov D. Hodgkin E. Cannon 2. Inactivation of the sodium-potassium pump will cause A.An increase in intracellular volume B.An increase in intracellular K+ concentration C.Hyperpolarization of membrane potential D.Increase in the excitability of nerve cell E.An increase in flow of sodium out of cell 3. Depolarization of an axon is produced by A.Inward diffusion of Na+ B. Active extrusion of K+ C. Outward diffusion of K+ D. Inward active transport of Na+ E. Inward diffusion of Ca2+ 4. Which one of the following processes is not included in a cross bridge cycle? A. Myosin head is energized B. B. Attachment of cross bridge to actin C. Power stroke causes contraction D. Detachments of heads from actin E. Excitation causes filament sliding 5. Which one of the following is not the effect of preload on muscle contraction? A. In a limited range, tension caused by isometric contraction increases with the length. B. At optimal initial length a maximum tension is developed C. Tension declines when the length is shorter than optimal initial length D. Tension increases when the length is longer than optimal initial length E. Maximal active tension developed at length 22.2 m of sarcomere 6. Which of the following would cause a decrease in stroke volume: Ablock the conduction of the vagus nerve Bstimulation of the sympathetic nerves to the heart Cdecrease of the pressure in the carotid sinus Dan increase in the end-diastolic pressure Efrom lying position to upright position 7. If a person has an arterial pressure of 125/75 mmHg, A. The pulse pressure is 40 mmHg B. The mean arterial pressure is 92 mmHg C. Diastolic pressure is 80 mmHg D. Systolic pressure is 120 mmHg E. The mean arterial pressure is 100 mmHg 8. Of the following substances, which has an effect on vascular resistance that is opposite to the effect of the others? A. vasopressin B. bradykinin B. norepinephrine D. angiotension E. none of the above 9. The membrane potential of a ventricular myocardium is closest to equilibrium potential of K+ during A. Phase 0 of the action potential B. Phase 2 of the action potential C. Phase 3 of the action potential D. Phase 4 of the action potential E. The effective refractory period 10. Which of the following agents or changes has a negative inotropic effect on the heart A. Increased heart rate B. Sympathetic stimulation C. Norepinephrine D. Acetylcholine E. Cardiac glycosides 11. Minimum aortic pressure during the cardiac cycle is attained A. immediately after closure of the aortic semilunar valve B. immediately before opening of the aortic semilunar valve C. immediately before opening of the atrioventricular valves D.in mid-diastole E. none of the above 12. If you know the stroke volume, the only other thing you need to know to be able to determine the cardiac output is A. heart rate B. afterload C. preload D. ventricular contractility E. end-systolic volume 13. The main reason of the formation of intrapleural negative pressure is A. Elastic recoil force of the lung B. Surface tension C. Airway resistance D. Contraction of the inspiratory muscles E. Intrapulmonary pressure 14. Which of the following in arterial blood exerts the most important control on ventilation under normal conditions? A. PO2, B. PCO2, C. pH D. 2,3-DPG E. PCO 15. A lack of normal surfactant will result in A. Increased lung compliance B. Stabilization of alveolar volume C. Increased retractive force of the lungs D. Reduced alveolar-arterial O2 tension difference E. Increased partial pressure of O2 in blood 16. Which of the following shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right? A. Reduction in temperature B. Reduction in pH C. Reduction in PCO2 D. Reduction in 2,3-diphosphoglycerate in the red blood cell E. Reduction in PCO 17. When surrounding temperature is greater than the skin temperature the only means by which the body can loses heat is A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Evaporation E. Brown fat tissue 18. Which of the following is not a significant function of the stomach? A. short term storage of ingested food B. release of chyme into the small intestine C. mixing and liquefaction of food D. initiation of protein digestion E. absorption of amino acids 19. Which of the following enzymes would you expect to be most active in an environment where the pH was 2.0 ? What is the substrate for this enzyme? A. pepsin, starch B. trypsin, protein C. amylase, starch D. pepsin, protein E. enterokinase, neutral fat 20. During digestion, the small intestine is flooded with proteolytic enzymes such as trypsin. What is the source of trypsin (actually secreted as trypsinogen) ? A. salivary glands and gastric epithelium B. hepatocytes C. gastric epithelial cells D. bile duct epithelial cells E. pancreatic exocrine cells 21. Which of the following statements about the enteric nervous system is true? A. it functions both autonomously and by communication with the central nervous system B. its neurons are embedded in the tunica mucosa C. it controls secretion, but has no effect on motility in the intestine D. it innervates the esophagus and stomach, but not the intestines E. its not communicated with the central nervous 22. The main difference between primary urine and blood plasma is: A. Glucose concentration. B. Crystal osmotic pressure. C. NaCl concentration. D. Plasma protein concentration. E. pH value. 23. Proximal tubule of kidneys reabsorbs A. 85% of filtrated water. B. 85% of filtrated Na+ C. 6570% of filtrated Na+ and water. D. 6570% of filtrated glucose. E. 6570% of filtrated HCO3-. 24. Which type receptor is the naked peripheral end of an afferent neuron? A. nociceptors B. mechanoreceptors C. photoreceptors D. opiate receptors E. vitreous receptors 25. Sensory receptors convert carious forms of energy into electrical energy. What is the conversion process called? A. depolarization B. hyperpolarization C. frequency modulation D. somesthetic propagation E. transduction 26. Which receptors do not adapt at all or adapt slowly? A. tactile B. nociceptors C. phasic D. tonic E. taste 27. An increase in the action potential frequency in a sensory nerve usually signifies A. increased intensity of the stimulus B. cessation of the stimulus C. adaptation of the receptor D. constant and maintained stimulus E. An increase in the action potential 28. Why is the blind spot on the retina not usually perceived? A. it is very small, below the ability of the sensory cells to detect B. It is present only in very young children C. Its location in the visual field is different in each eye D. constant eye motion prevent the spot of spot from remaining still E. lateral input from adjacent cells fills in the missing information 29. The condition known as presbyopia is due to A. change in the shape of the eyeball as a result of age B. an age-related loss of cells in the retina C. change in the elasticity of the lens as a result of age D. a loss of transparency in the lens E. increased opacity of the vitreous humor 30. Which of the following is the principal function of the ossicles of the middle ear? A. they provide mechanical support for the flexible membranes to which they are attached (i.e., the eardrum and the oval window) B. they reduce the amplitude of the vibrations reaching the oval window, protecting it from mechanical damage C. they increase the efficiency of vibration transfer through the middle ear D. they control the opening of the Eustachian tubes and allow pressure to be equalized E. they have little effect on the process of hearing in humans, since they are essentially passive structures. 31. The most important role of the gamma motoneurons is to A. Stimulate skeletal muscle fibers to contract afferent activity duringaB. Maintain I contraction of muscle C. Detect the length of resting skeletal muscle D. Prevent muscles from producing too much force E. Above-mentioned are wrong. 32. Which one of the following is not the cholinergic neuron A. All preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system B. The neurons in the caudate nucleus, putaman, globus pallidus C. Motor neurons in the spinal cord D. The postganglionic neurons of parasympatietic nervous system E. Most of postganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system 33. The reason of decerebrate rigidity is A. Overactivity of the spinocerebellum B. Overactivity of the medullary reticular inhibitor system C. Non-functional of the medullary reticular inhibitor system D. Non-functional of the pontine excitatory system E. Non-functional of the spinocerebellum 34. Which one is not belong to the feature of visceral pain A. The highly localized types of damage to the viscera cause severe pain. B. Ischemia, chemical damage, and stretching of the ligaments cause severely pain. C. Localization of visceral pain is frequently difficult. D. Often followed by the referred pain and referred hyperalgesia. E. The signals are transmitted by Ad fibers GABA(a gammaaminobutyric acid) 35. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fast wave sleep? A. It is the first state of sleep entered when a person falls asleep B. It is accompanied by the vivid dreaming C. It is characterized by a slow but steady heart rate D. It occurs more often in adults than in children E. It lasts longer than periods of slow-wave sleep 36. During a voluntary movement, the muscle spindle provide the central nervous system with information about A. The blood flow to the muscle being moved B. The velocity of the movement C. The length of the muscle being moved D. The tension developed by the muscle being moved E. The change in joint angle produced by the movement 37. The specific neurotransmitter pathway from the substantia nigra to striatum is A.Dopamine, B.Acetylcholine, C.Gammaaminobutyric acid (GABA) D.Noradrenaline E.Glutamate 38. Which of the following hormones is associated with acromegaly? A. growth hormone B. thyroid hormone C. thyroid stimulating hormone D. adrenocorticotropic hormone E. thyrotropin releasing hormone 39. Which of the following hormones is associated with cretinism? A. growth hormone B. thyroid hormone C. prolactin D. adrenocorticotropic hormone E. melanophore stimulating hormone 40. Which of the following hormones is not secreted from adenohypophysis? A. growth hormone B. thyroid stimulating hormone C. prolactin D. luteinizing hormone E. corticotropin releasing hormone. II Define the Concepts (2 marks each, 20 marks in total) 1. Voltage gated channel 2. Threshold potential 3. Ejection fraction 4. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 5. Hemostasis 6. Basic electrical rhythm 7. Visual Accommodation 8. Food specific dynamic effect 9. Forced expiratory volume 10. Axoplasmic transport III Answers the following questions (8 marks each, 40 marks in total) 1.Describe the possible mechanisms of glucose transport across cell membrane. 2. What factors determine the arterial blood pressure? 3. Describe the factors that determine the glomerular filtration rate. 4. Describe the regulation of glucocorticoids secretion. 5. Describe the detail of the neuronal circuit and function of the skeletal muscle stretch reflex. Examination of Physiology(B) Class_ Name_ Numbers_ Scores_ I .Choose the best answer for each of the following ( 1 point for each, total 40 points) 1.The most important mechanism to maintain the homeostasis is A.Negative feedback B.Positive feedback C.Nervous regulation D.Humoral regulation E.Autoregulation 2. Which of the following is not an example of cotransport? A.Movement of glucose and Na+ through the epithelial membrane in the intestinal epithelium B.Movement of Na+ and K+ through the action of the Na+ pump C.Movement of Na+ and glucose across the kidney tubules D.Movement of Na+ into a cell while Ca2+ moves out E.Exchange between Na+ and H+ ions 3. What would happen if the threshold potential were increased? A.Amplitude of AP will be higher than normal B.Propagation velocity of AP will be increased C.Sodium channels will be more activated D.Excitability of cells will be increased E.Excitability of cells will be decreased 4.Ca2+ triggers contraction by binding to A.Tropomyosin B.Actin C.Cross bridge D.Ttroponin E.Myosin 5. In resting muscle, tropomyosin A. Inhibits Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum B. Prevents Ca2+ from binding to troponin C. Excites the binding of heavy meromyosion globular heads to actin subunits. D. Prevents the formation of cross-bridges E. Promots Ca2+ transport from plasma to sarcoplasmic reticulum 6. An increase of intracellular Na+ concentration would expected to A.Stimulate Ca2+ pump B. Stimulate Na+ pump C.Low excitability of the cell D.Increase intracellular level of amino acid E.Decrease intracellular Ca2+ concentration 7. The transmission at neuromuscular junction is characterized by A.Two way directional propagation B. No time delay C. Affected uneasy by drugs and changes of environment D. One to one transport E. All above are false 8. A hematocrit of 45% means that in the sample of blood analyzed A.45% of the hemoglobin is in the plasma B.45% of the total blood volume is made of blood plasma C.45% of the total blood volume is made of platelets and red and white blood cells D.45% of the hemoglobin is in the red blood cells E.45% of the formed elements in blood are red blood cells 9.When the radius of the resistance vesseles is increased, which one of the following is increased? A. Systolic blood pressure B. Diastolic blood pressure C.Viscosity of the blood D.Hematocrit E.Capillary blood now 10.Stroke volume is increased by A.Decrease in venous compliance B.Increase in afterload C.Increase in contractility D.Increase in heart rate E.Decrease in coronary blood now 11. When a person moves from a supine position to a standing position, which of the following compensatory changes occurs? A.Decreased heart rate B.Increased contractility C.Decreased total peripherad resistance D.Decreased cardiac output E.Increased phase 0 of the action potential 12.The membrane potential of a ventricular myocardium is closest to equilibrium potential of K+ during A.Phase 0 of the action potential B.Phase 2 of the action potential C.Phase 3 of the action potential D.Pphase 4 of the action potential E.The effective refractory period 13.If systolic pressure is 120 mmHg, diastolic pressure is 80mmHg, the mean blood pressure is A.100mmHg B.93.3mmHg C.95.3mmHg D.90mmHg E.80mmHg 14.If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in A.Cardiac output B.End-diastolic volume C.Heart rate D.Pulse pressure E.Stroke volume 15.Which of the following agents or changes has a negative inotropic effect on the heart? A.Increased heart rate B.Sympathetic stimulation C.Norepinephrine (NE) D.Acetylcholine(ACh) E.Cardiac glycosides 16.Total lung capacity is the sum of A.Residual volume + Functional residual volume B.Residual volume + Vital capacity C.Residual volume + Expiratory volume + Tidal volume D.Residual volume + Inspiratory reserve volume E.Functional residual volume + Tidal volume 17.A lack of normal surfactant will result in A.Increased lung compliance B.Stabilization of alveolar volume C.Increased retractive force of the lungs D.Reduced alveolar-arterial O2 tension difference E.Increased partial pressure of O2 in blood 18.Hypoxemia (low partial pressure of PO2 in blood) produces hyperventilation by a direst effect on the A.Phrenic nerve B.J receptors C.Lung stretch receptors D.Medullary chemoreceptors E.Arotid and aortic body chemoreceptors 19.If an area of the lung is not ventilated because of bronchial obstruction, the pulmonary capillary blood serving that area will have a Po2 that is A.Equal to atmospheric PO2 B.Equal to mixed pulmonary venous PO2 C.Equal