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2026年青海省高一英语月考综合卷学校:___________班级:___________姓名:___________考号:___________考试时长:60分钟满分:100分第一部分听力理解(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Wheredoestheconversationprobablytakeplace?A.Inalibrary.B.Inabookstore.C.Inaclassroom.2.Whatwillthemandonext?A.Makeaphonecall.B.Gotoameeting.C.Sendanemail.3.Whatarethespeakersmainlytalkingabout?A.Aweekendplan.B.Asportsevent.C.ATVprogram.4.Whyisthewomanupset?A.Shelostherkeys.B.Shemissedthebus.C.Hercarbrokedown.5.Whatdoesthemansuggestthewomando?A.Askforhelp.B.Tryagainlater.C.Changehermethod.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。6.Whattimeisitnow?A.7:15.B.7:30.C.7:45.7.Whatistheprobablerelationshipbetweenthespeakers?A.Teacherandstudent.B.Fatheranddaughter.C.Bossandemployee.听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。8.Whatdoesthemanwanttobuy?A.Asweater.B.Ajacket.C.Ashirt.9.Whatcolordoesthemanprefer?A.Blue.B.Gray.C.Black.10.Howmuchwillthemanpay?A.$45.B.$50.C.$55.听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。11.Whatisthewomandoing?A.Reportinganewsstory.B.Hostingaradioprogram.C.Conductinganinterview.12.Whatdoesthemanthinkisthebiggestchallengeofhisjob?A.Workinglonghours.B.Dealingwithdifferentpeople.C.Travelingfrequently.13.Whatdoesthemanenjoymostaboutbeingaphotographer?A.Thecreativefreedom.B.Thechancetoseetheworld.C.Thepositivefeedback.听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。14.Wheredoestheconversationtakeplace?A.Atatravelagency.B.Atanairport.C.Atahotel.15.HowlongwillthemanstayinLondon?A.Forthreedays.B.Forfivedays.C.Foraweek.16.Whatdoesthewomanrecommendthemanvisit?A.TheBritishMuseum.B.TheTowerofLondon.C.TheLondonEye.17.Whatisincludedinthetourpackage?A.Mealsandflights.B.Hotelandsometickets.C.Transportationandguide.听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。18.Whatisthespeakermainlyintroducing?A.Aschoolclub.B.Avolunteerproject.C.Asummercourse.19.Whoistheactivitydesignedfor?A.Highschoolstudents.B.Collegestudents.C.Localresidents.20.Whenshouldinterestedpeopleregisterby?A.June1st.B.June15th.C.July1st.第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。AThe“EatLocal”movementencouragespeopletobuyfoodgrownandproducednearby.Supportersbelieveitbenefitstheenvironment,thelocaleconomy,andhealth.Transportingfoodoverlongdistancesusesfuelandproducespollution.Localfoodisoftenfresherandcontainsmorenutrients.Italsosupportslocalfarmersandkeepsmoneywithinthecommunity.However,criticsarguethatlocalisn'talwaysbetter.Insomecoldclimates,growingvegetablesinheatedgreenhousesinwintermayusemoreenergythantransportingthemfromwarmerareas.Thekeyistomakeinformedchoices.21.Whatisthemainpurposeofthe“EatLocal”movement?A.Toreducefoodprices.B.Topromotenearbyfood.C.Toincreasefoodproduction.D.Toimprovefoodquality.22.Accordingtosupporters,whatisNOTanadvantageofeatinglocal?A.Ithelpstheenvironment.B.Itbenefitslocalfarmers.C.Itensuresfoodsafety.D.Itprovidesfresherfood.23.Whatdocriticssayaboutthemovement?A.Localfoodisalwayshealthier.B.Itmaynotbeenergy-efficientinallcases.C.Itistooexpensiveformostpeople.D.Itharmstheglobaleconomy.BMynameisLeo,andI'mfromasmalltown.Movingtoabigcityforuniversitywasahugeshock.Everythingwasfaster,louder,andmorecrowded.Ifeltlonelyandoutofplace.ThenIjoinedtheuniversity'shikingclub.Duringweekendtripstonearbymountains,Imetpeoplewhosharedmylovefornature.Wetalked,laughed,andsupportedeachother.Slowly,thecitystartedtofeellessintimidating.Ifoundquietparksandcozycafes.Ilearnedthathomeisn'tjustaplace;it'safeelingofconnection.Now,Iappreciateboththepeaceofmyhometownandtheenergyofthecity.24.HowdidLeofeelwhenhefirstmovedtothecity?A.Excitedandcurious.B.Lonelyanduncomfortable.C.Confidentandhappy.D.Angryandfrustrated.25.WhathelpedLeoadjusttocitylife?A.Findingapart-timejob.B.Joiningahikingclub.C.Makingfriendsfromhishometown.D.Exploringthecityalone.26.WhatdidLeolearnfromhisexperience?A.Bigcitiesarebetterthansmalltowns.B.It'simportanttoliveclosetonature.C.Homeisaboutfeelingconnected.D.Universityclubsareawasteoftime.CArtificialIntelligence(AI)ischangingthewaywelearnlanguages.LanguagelearningappsnowuseAItoprovidepersonalizedlessons.Theyanalyzeyourstrengthsandweaknessesandadjustthedifficulty.Someappsevenhavechatbotsthatletyoupracticeconversationanytime.WhileAItoolsarehelpful,theyhavelimitations.Theymaynotunderstandculturalcontextorslangverywell.Also,theycannotreplacehumanteacherswhoprovideencouragementandreal-lifeinteraction.Thebestapproachmightbeacombination:usingAIforpracticeandrepetition,andhumansforguidanceandconversation.27.HowdoesAIpersonalizelanguagelearning?A.Bysettingfixedlessonsforeveryone.B.Byanalyzinglearner'sperformance.C.Byreplacinghumanteachers.D.Byfocusingonlyongrammar.28.WhatisalimitationofAIlanguagetoolsmentionedinthetext?A.Theyaretooexpensive.B.Theylearntooslowly.C.Theylackculturalunderstanding.D.Theyarenotavailableeverywhere.29.Whatisthesuggestedbestwaytolearnalanguageaccordingtothetext?A.RelyentirelyonAIapps.B.Learnonlyfromhumanteachers.C.CombineAIpracticewithhumanguidance.D.Avoidusingtechnology.DTheGreatPacificGarbagePatchisahugeareaintheoceanfilledwithplasticwaste.Mostoftheplasticcomesfromland.Itiscarriedbyriversandwindsintothesea.Oceancurrentsthentrapitinthisarea.Theplasticbreaksdownintotinypiecescalledmicroplastics,whichareeatenbyseaanimals.Thisharmstheanimalsandcanevenenterthehumanfoodchain.Cleaningupthegarbagepatchisverydifficultbecauseitcoversavastareaandtheplasticisspreadout.Thebestsolutionistopreventplasticfromenteringtheoceaninthefirstplacebyreducinguse,improvingrecycling,andmanagingwastebetter.30.WhatisthemaincauseoftheGreatPacificGarbagePatch?A.Plasticdumpeddirectlyfromships.B.Plasticfromlandenteringthesea.C.Naturalformationofoceandebris.D.Underwatervolcanicactivity.31.Whatare“microplastics”?A.Largeplasticitems.B.Tinypiecesofbroken-downplastic.C.Newtypesofbiodegradableplastic.D.Plasticusedinmedicalequipment.32.Whyiscleaningupthegarbagepatchdifficult?A.Itislocatedinaremotecountry.B.Theplasticislargeandheavy.C.Itisvastandtheplasticisspreadout.D.Notechnologyexiststoremoveplastic.33.Whatissuggestedasthebestsolution?A.Inventingnewtypesofplastic.B.Stoppingallplasticproduction.C.Preventingplasticfromreachingtheocean.D.Movingthegarbagepatchtoanotherarea.EHaveyoueverheardof“forestbathing”?Itdoesn'tmeantakingabathintheforest!Itisthepracticeofspendingtimeinaforestforrelaxationandhealth.TheideacomesfromJapan,whereitiscalled“Shinrin-yoku”.Studiesshowthatspendingtimearoundtreescanreducestress,lowerbloodpressure,andimprovemood.Thisisbecausetreesreleasechemicalscalledphytoncides,whichseemtoboostourimmunesystem.Youdon'tneedtoexercisehard.Simplywalkslowly,breathedeeply,anduseyoursensestoenjoythesights,sounds,andsmellsoftheforest.34.Whatis“forestbathing”?A.Atypeofoutdoorexercise.B.Cleaningaforestarea.C.Spendingrelaxingtimeinaforest.D.Studyingplantsinaforest.35.Whatisaprovenbenefitofforestbathing?A.Itbuildsmusclestrength.B.Itimproveseyesight.C.Itreducesstress.D.Itincreasesappetite.第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。HowtoMakeaGoodFirstImpressionFirstimpressionsareformedquicklyandcanbelasting.Whetheryou'remeetingsomeonenewatschool,ataparty,orinaninterview,herearesometipstohelpyoumakeapositiveimpact.___36___Agenuinesmilemakesyouappearfriendlyandapproachable.Italsohelpstorelaxyouandtheotherperson.Makeeyecontact.Whenyoulooksomeoneintheeyes,itshowsyouarepayingattentionandareconfident.___37___Usetheperson'sname.Peoplelikehearingtheirownname.Ifyoujustlearnedtheperson'sname,useitonceortwiceintheconversation.___38___Beagoodlistener.Showinterestinwhattheotherpersonissaying.Nodoccasionallyandaskfollow-upquestions.___39___Everyonewantstofeelheardandunderstood.Payattentiontoyourbodylanguage.Standorsitupstraight.Avoidcrossingyourarms,whichcanseemdefensive.Leanslightlyforwardtoshowengagement.___40___Beyourself.Peoplecanoftensensewhenyou'renotbeingauthentic.Relaxandletyourtruepersonalityshinethrough.A.Smile.B.Dressproperly.C.Thismakesthemfeelvalued.D.However,don'tstaretoointensely.E.Therefore,prepareyourtalkingpoints.F.Thisismoreimportantthantalkingaboutyourself.G.Finally,themostimportantthingistobegenuine.第三部分语言运用(共两节,满分45分)第一节完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。Iusedtohaterunning.Inschool,IwasalwaysthelastonetofinishthemileruninPEclass.Myfacewouldturnred,andmylegsfeltlikelead.I__41__thatIwasjustnotbuiltforit.EverythingchangedwhenIenteredhighschool.Mynewfriend,Mia,wasacross-countryrunner.Sheinvitedmeto__42__herteam'spractice.“Justcomeandwatch,”shesaid.Iagreed,__43__toactuallyrun.Theteamwaspracticinginaparkwithabeautifultrailthroughthewoods.Isatonabenchandwatchedthemrunby.Theydidn'tlook__44__;theylookedstrongandhappy.Miafinishedherrunandsatnexttome,breathingheavilybut__45__.“See?It'snotsobad,”shesaidwithasmile.Thenextweek,Miaaskedagain.Thistime,shesaid,“Justrunwithmeforfiveminutes.Wecanwalktherest.”I__46__.Westartedslowly.Miatalkedaboutherday,andItriedtofocusonhervoiceinsteadofmy__47__.BeforeIknewit,fiveminuteshadpassed.“Let'sgofortwomoreminutes,”Miasuggested.I__48__.Thatwasthebeginning.Werantogetherafewtimesaweek,alwaysstartingsmall.Mianeverpushedmetoohard.Shecelebratedeverysmall__49__withme—runningfortenminuteswithoutstopping,finishingalongertrail,__50__mypacealittle.Overtime,somethingamazinghappened.Istartedto__51__running.Ilovedthefeelingoffreshairinmylungsandthequietoftheearlymorning.Runningbecamemytimeto__52__andthink.Lastmonth,Iraninmyfirst5Krace.Miaranbesidemethewholeway.Whenwecrossedthefinishline,Ifeltasenseof__53__Ihadneverexperiencedbefore.Iwasn'tthefastest,butIhaddoneit.Thisexperiencetaughtmethatour__54__areoftenmental,notphysical.Withalittlesupportandpatience,wecanachievemorethanwethink__55__.Now,I'mtheoneinvitingfriendstogoforarun.41.A.believedB.hopedC.pretendedD.forgot42.A.joinB.watchC.recordD.organize43.A.refusingB.planningC.promisingD.expecting44.A.tiredB.peacefulC.miserableD.energetic45.A.smilingB.coughingC.shakingD.crying46.A.gaveupB.turnedawayC.agreedD.hesitated47.A.breathingB.wordsC.speedD.pain48.A.failedB.noddedC.apologizedD.escaped49.A.goalB.victoryC.rewardD.surprise50.A.keepingB.changingC.increasingD.finding51.A.practiceB.avoidC.enjoyD.fear52.A.restB.competeC.relaxD.study53.A.reliefB.prideC.humorD.shock54.A.abilitiesB.limitsC.dreamsD.duties55.A.necessaryB.strangeC.possibleD.easy第二节语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。TheLanternFestival,__56__fallsonthe15thdayofthefirstlunarmonth,markstheendoftheChineseNewYearcelebrations.Onthisnight,peoplegoouttolookatlanterndisplaysandsolveriddles__57__(write)onthem.Itisatimeforfamilyreunionandfun.Oneofthemostpopularactivitiesiseatingtangyuan,__58__aresweetriceballs.Theirroundshapesymbolizeswholenessandunitywithinthefamily.Makingtangyuantogethercanbea__59__(joy)familyactivity.Anothertraditioniswatchinglionanddragondances.Thelouddrumsandenergeticmovements__60__(believe)todriveawayevilspiritsandbringgoodluckforthecomingyear.Inthepast,theLanternF
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