广东省惠州市、韶关市2026届高三下学期4月模拟考试 英语（含解析）

广东省惠州市、韶关市2026届高三下学期4月模拟考试英语（含解析）注意事项答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。考试时间120分钟，满分150分。第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。Whatdoesthewomanwanttodo?

A.Borrowabook.B.Buyapen.C.Useacomputer.Howwillthespeakersgotothepark?

A.Bybus.B.Bybike.C.Onfoot.Whattimewillthemeetingstart?

A.At9:00.B.At9:10.C.At9:30.Whatistheman’sfavoritesport?

A.Basketball.B.Football.C.Tennis.Whatistheweatherliketoday?

A.Rainy.B.Sunny.C.Cloudy.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。Whyisthewomanlate?

A.Shemissedthebus.B.Shegotlost.C.Shehadatrafficjam.Whatwillthewomandofirst?

A.Havelunch.B.Attendameeting.C.Visitafriend.听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。Whatistheman’splanfortheweekend?

A.Gocamping.B.Watchamovie.C.Visithisparents.Whowillthemangowith?

A.Hisbrother.B.Hissister.C.Hisfriend.听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。Whatisthewoman’sproblem?

A.Shecan’tsleepwell.B.Shecan’tstudyhard.C.Shecan’tmakefriends.Whatdoesthemanadvisehertodo?

A.Drinksomemilkbeforebed.B.Dosomeexerciseinthemorning.C.Listentomusicbeforebed.Whenwillthewomantrytheman’sadvice?

A.Tonight.B.Tomorrownight.C.Thisweekend.听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。Whatistheconversationmainlyabout?

A.Ajobinterview.B.Aworkplan.C.Acompanyintroduction.Whatdidthewomandobefore?

A.Sheworkedinaschool.B.Sheworkedinahospital.C.Sheworkedinacompany.Whatisthewomangoodat?

A.SpeakingEnglish.B.Writingreports.C.Communicatingwithpeople.Whenwillthewomangettheresult?

A.Inthreedays.B.Inaweek.C.Intwoweeks.听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。Whatisthespeakertalkingabout?

A.Aschooltrip.B.Asummercamp.C.Avolunteeractivity.Whenwilltheactivitystart?

A.OnJuly1st.B.OnJuly5th.C.OnJuly10th.Wherewilltheparticipantsstay?

A.Inahotel.B.Inaschool.C.Inlocalfamilies.Whatisrequiredfortheparticipants?

A.Tobringtheirownclothes.B.Topayfortheactivity.C.TohavegoodEnglishskills.第二部分阅读（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。AWuzhen,locatedinZhejiangProvince,isafamouswatertownknownforitspicturesquesceneryandrichculturalheritage.Inrecentyears,digitaltechnologyhasbeenintegratedintothetown’sdevelopment,bringingnewchangestotouristengagementandsatisfaction.Arecentstudyshowstheimpactofdataminingonthetown’stourismindustry,withthefollowingdatacollectedoverthreemonths:PeriodTouristengagementrateVisitorsatisfactionrateMonth115%70%Month235%85%Month320%15%Thestudyalsopointsoutthatdigital-basedapproacheshavehelpedWuzhenbalanceeconomicdevelopmentandenvironmentalprotection,makingitamodelforotherruralareasseekingsustainabledevelopmentthroughtechnology.Touristscannowusesmartguidestonavigatethetown,bookticketsonline,andexperiencevirtualtoursofancientbuildings,whichhasgreatlyimprovedtheirtravelexperience.Whatisthemainpurposeofthepassage?

A.TointroducethehistoryofWuzhen.B.ToshowtheimpactofdigitaltechnologyonWuzhen’stourism.

C.TocomparedifferenttouristattractionsinZhejiang.D.Toexplainhowtoprotectculturalheritage.Whatcanwelearnfromthedatainthetable?

A.ThetouristengagementratewasthehighestinMonth3.

B.ThevisitorsatisfactionratedroppedsharplyinMonth3.

C.Thetouristengagementrateandvisitorsatisfactionratealwaysrosetogether.

D.ThevisitorsatisfactionratewasthelowestinMonth1.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“integrated”meaninParagraph1?

A.Combined.B.Compared.C.Separated.D.Replaced.BAsadeafequestrianathlete,Ihavealwaysfaceduniquechallengesinpursuingmypassion.Growingup,Istruggledtocommunicatewithcoachesandteammates,butmyloveforhorseskeptmegoing.EverythingchangedwhenImetadeafriderwhointroducedmetoAmericanSignLanguage(ASL).Forthefirsttime,IfeltlikeIbelongedintheequestrianworld.Duringpractice,Ifixmygazebetweenmyhorse’sears,thenglancesidewaysatmyASLinterpreterasshesignsthecoach’sinstructions.She’dbejoggingtostaywithinmyviewingrange,interpretingwhilealsotryingtostayclearofoncominghorses.It’snoteasy,butwe’vebuiltastrongbondovertime.Beinganequestrianathleteisdifferentfromothersports,notleastbecauseofthebondsthatcanstirfromthissharedloveforthesmellofhorsesandthethrillofriding.IstillrememberthefirsttimeIcompeted.Iwasnervous,butwhenIsawmyinterpreterstandingbythesideofthearena,signingwordsofencouragement,Ifeltcalm.Irealizedthatmydisabilitydoesn’tdefineme—it’sjustapartofwhoIam.WithASLandthesupportofmyteam,I’vebeenabletopursuemydreamandshowtheworldthatdeafpeoplecandoanythingtheysettheirmindsto.Whydidtheauthorfeel“likeIbelonged”aftermeetingthedeafrider?

A.Shefoundsomeonewhosharedherloveforhorses.

B.ShelearnedASLandcouldcommunicatebetter.

C.Shegotachancetocompeteinabigevent.

D.Shemetacoachwhounderstoodherdisability.Whatdoestheauthordoduringpractice?

A.Shefocusesonlyonherhorse.

B.Shecommunicateswithhercoachdirectly.

C.Shewatchesherinterpreterforinstructions.

D.ShepracticesASLwithherteammates.Whatcanweinferabouttheauthor?

A.Shegaveupequestriansportsonce.

B.Sheisproudofherachievement.

C.Shedislikesworkingwithaninterpreter.

D.Sheisthefirstdeafequestrianathlete.CNaturehaslongbeenknowntohaveapositiveimpactonhumanmentalhealth.Spendingtimeingreenspacescanreducestress,improvemood,andevenenhancecognitivefunction.However,ithasbeendifficulttofindwaystoquantifythesebenefits—untilrecently.ProfessorBratman,aleadingexpertinenvironmentalpsychology,hasofferedaconceptualmodelforthisinhisstudy,whichisimportanttotakeintoaccountwhenplanninghowtoconservenatureandintegrateitintoourcities.Themodelfocusesonthreekeyfactors:theamountofcontactpeoplehavewithnature,thequalityofthatcontact,andtheindividual’spersonalcharacteristics.Bratman’sresearchshowsthatregular,high-qualitycontactwithnaturecansignificantlyimprovementalwell-being,whileoccasionalorlow-qualitycontacthaslittleeffect.Forexample,walkinginalushparkfor30minutesadayismorebeneficialthanspendingafewminutesinasmallcitysquarewithfewplants.Thestudyalsosuggeststhaturbanplannersshouldprioritizecreatingmoregreenspacesindenselypopulatedareas,astheseareasoftenhavetheleastaccesstonature.Bydoingso,theycanhelpreducethementalhealthgapbetweendifferentcommunitiesandpromoteoverallpublichealth.Ultimately,Bratmanhopesthathismodelwillhelppolicymakersandurbanplannersmakemoreinformeddecisionsthatbenefitbothpeopleandtheenvironment.Whatisthemainchallengeinstudyingtheimpactofnatureonmentalhealth?

A.Findingenoughparticipants.B.Quantifyingthebenefits.

C.Choosingtherightgreenspaces.D.Measuringcognitivefunction.WhatdoesBratman’smodelfocuson?

A.Thetypeofgreenspaces.B.Thetimespentinnature.

C.Contactwithnatureandpersonalcharacteristics.D.Thelocationofgreenspaces.WhatdoesBratmansuggesturbanplannersdo?

A.Buildmoregreenspacesincrowdedareas.B.Encouragepeopletomovetoruralareas.

C.Reducethenumberofurbangreenspaces.D.Focusonprotectingexistinggreenspaces.DArtificialIntelligence(AI)istransformingthehealthcareindustry,andoneofitsmostpromisingapplicationsisinelderlycare.Sense4Safety,anewAI-poweredsystem,isdesignedtohelpelderlypeopleliveindependentlybydetectingfallrisksandprovidingtimelyassistance.Thesystemanalyzesaperson’sgait,measuringsteplengthandspeedtopredictfallrisks.Ifitdetectssubtlechangesingaitthatcouldindicateahigherriskoffalling,itsendsanalerttotheuser’sfamilymembersorcaregivers.Dr.Demiris,thedeveloperofSense4Safety,saysthatAIallowsustobeproactive,interveningwhenitdetectssubtlechangesbeforeanaccidentoccurs.“Toooften,wewaituntilafallhappenstotakeaction,”heexplains.“WithAI,wecanpreventaccidentsandhelpelderlypeoplemaintaintheirindependenceforlonger.”However,therearechallengestowidespreadadoptionofAIinelderlycare.Ironically,thosewhoneedthistechnologythemost—ofteninruralorlower-incomeareas—mightbethelasttoaccessit,exacerbatingthedigitaldivideinhealthcare.Additionally,somepeopleworryaboutthelackofhumaninteraction.ReginaShih,aseniorcaregiver,says,“Thereisnowaytoreplacethehumaninteractionandempathyrequiredinfamilycaregiving.AIcanhelp,butitcannotreplacethehumantouchneededtohelpsomeoneeat,bathe,ordress.”Ultimately,smarthomesandAIsystemsrepresentapowerfultool,notareplacement.Thechallengeliesinensuringitisaccessibletoallwhoneeditandinbalancingtechnologywithhumancare.WhatisSense4Safetydesignedtodo?

A.Cureelderlypeople’sdiseases.B.Detectfallrisksandprovideassistance.

C.Helpelderlypeoplelearnnewskills.D.Connectelderlypeoplewiththeirfamilies.WhatdoesDr.Demirismeanby“proactive”inParagraph2?

A.Takingactionbeforeanaccidenthappens.B.Respondingquicklyafteranaccident.

C.Waitingforotherstotakeaction.D.Focusingontreatingaccidents.WhatisachallengetotheadoptionofAIinelderlycare?

A.Itistooexpensiveformostfamilies.B.Itcan’tdetectfallrisksaccurately.

C.Itmaywidenthedigitaldivide.D.Itrequirestoomuchhumansupervision.WhatdoesReginaShihthinkofAIinelderlycare?

A.Itcanreplacehumancaregiverscompletely.B.Itisuselessforelderlypeople.

C.Itcanbeahelpfultoolbutnotareplacement.D.Itismoreeffectivethanhumancare.第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。HowtoBuildaHealthyLifestyleLivingahealthylifestyleisessentialforphysicalandmentalwell-being.It’snotaboutmakingdrasticchangesovernight,butaboutadoptingsmall,sustainablehabitsthataddupovertime.Herearesomepracticaltipstohelpyoubuildahealthylifestyle:____36____.Sleepiscrucialforrecovery,mood,andoverallhealth.Aimfor7-9hoursofqualitysleepeverynight.Establishaconsistentsleepschedulebygoingtobedandwakingupatthesametimeeveryday,evenonweekends.Avoidusingelectronicdevicesanhourbeforebed,asthebluelightcandisruptyoursleep.Eatabalanceddiet.Focusonwhole,unprocessedfoodssuchasfruits,vegetables,wholegrains,leanproteins,andhealthyfats.____37____.Limityourintakeofsugarydrinks,processedsnacks,andfastfood.Remembertostayhydratedbydrinkingplentyofwaterthroughouttheday.Stayactive.Regularphysicalactivityisgoodforyourheart,muscles,andmind.Findanactivityyouenjoy,suchaswalking,running,swimming,oryoga,andaimforatleast30minutesofmoderateexercisemostdaysoftheweek.____38____.Evensmallamountsofactivity,liketakingthestairsinsteadoftheelevator,canmakeadifference.Managestress.Chronicstresscanhaveanegativeimpactonyourhealth.Findhealthywaystocopewithstress,suchasmeditation,deepbreathing,orspendingtimeinnature.____39____.Talkingtoafriend,familymember,orprofessionalcanalsohelpyouprocessyourfeelingsandreducestress.____40____.Buildingahealthylifestyletakestimeandpatience.Don’tbetoohardonyourselfifyouslipup—justgetbackontrack.Celebrateyoursmallwins,andrememberthateveryhealthychoiceyoumakeisasteptowardabetteryou.GetenoughsleepMakeexerciseapartofyourdailyroutineAvoideatingtoomuchatnightInotherwords,eatfoodthatnourishesyourbodyThesefoodsprovideessentialnutrientsandenergyBeconsistentandkindtoyourselfStressisanormalpartoflife,butitshouldn’tcontrolyou第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。WhenIwasachild,mygrandmotherwouldtellmestoriesaboutherchildhood.Shegrewupinasmallvillageinthecountryside,wherelifewassimplebutfullofjoy.Everymorning,shewould41upearlytohelpherparentswiththefarmwork.Shewouldfeedthechickens,waterthevegetables,and42thecowsbeforegoingtoschool.Schoolwasasmallwoodenhousewithonlyoneclassroom.Therewereabout30studentsofdifferentages,43byasingleteacher.Mygrandmotherwasa44student,andshelovedreadingandwriting.Shewouldspendherfreetime45booksunderthebigtreeinfrontoftheschool.Eventhoughshehadlittlemoney,she46tobuybookswiththepocketmoneyherparentsgaveher.Oneday,agroupofvolunteerscametothevillage.Theybroughtnewbooksandschoolsuppliesforthestudents.Mygrandmotherwas47togetanewstorybook,whichbecameherfavorite.Shereaditoverandoveragain,andeven48storiesbasedonit.Thevolunteersalsotaughtthestudentsnewsongsandgames,whichmadetheschooldaysmore49.AsIgrewup,mygrandmother’sstories50mealot.TheytaughtmetobegratefulforwhatIhaveandtonevergiveuponmydreams.Eventhoughlifewashardforher,shealwayskeptapositive51andworkedhardtomakeabetterlife.Now,Ioftenvisitmygrandmotherandlistentoherstoriesagain.They52bringmewarmthandstrength.A.getB.wakeC.standD.turnA.milkB.rideC.cleanD.feedA.taughtB.ledC.guidedD.trainedA.lazyB.brightC.slowD.quietA.readingB.writingC.sellingD.borrowingA.triedB.refusedC.forgotD.failedA.sadB.angryC.excitedD.nervousA.readB.wroteC.toldD.heardA.boringB.difficultC.interestingD.tiringA.influencedB.worriedC.surprisedD.confusedA.attitudeB.feelingC.thoughtD.ideaA.neverB.alwaysC.hardlyD.sometimesInrecentyears,moreandmorepeoplehavestartedtopayattentiontoenvironmentalprotection.Weallknowthattheearthisourhome,andweneedto53it.However,somepeoplestilldon’trealizetheimportanceofprotectingtheenvironment.Theythrowawayrubbisheverywhere,cutdowntrees,andpollutetheairandwater.Protectingtheenvironmentisnotadifficulttask.Wecandoitinourdailylives.Forexample,wecan54usingplasticbagsandusereusablebagsinstead.Wecansortourrubbishandrecycleit.Wecanalsosavewaterandelectricitybyturningoffthelightsandtapswhenwedon’tusethem.Everysmall55wemakecanhelpprotecttheenvironment.Moreover,weshouldencourageotherstojoinusinprotectingtheenvironment.Wecantellourfamilyandfriendsabouttheimportanceofenvironmentalprotection,and56themtotakeaction.Schoolscanalsoteachstudentsaboutenvironmentalprotectionandorganizeactivitiessuchastree-plantingandrubbish-collecting.Protectingtheenvironmentisa57responsibility.Itisnotonlyforusbutalsoforourfuturegenerations.Ifweworktogether,wecanmaketheeartha58placetolivein.Let’stakeactionnowanddoourbesttoprotectourhome.A.protectB.destroyC.ignoreD.leaveA.keepB.stopC.continueD.startA.choiceB.decisionC.actionD.planA.forceB.askC.allowD.inviteA.personalB.familyC.globalD.individualA.worseB.betterC.smallerD.bigger第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。TheSpringFestivalisoneofthemostimportanttraditionalfestivalsinChina.It57(celebrate)onthefirstdayofthelunarnewyear,whichusuallyfallsinJanuaryorFebruary.TheSpringFestivalisatimeforfamilyreunion,andpeoplefromalloverthecountryreturntotheirhometowns58(spend)timewiththeirfamilies.BeforetheSpringFestival,peopleusuallycleantheirhousesthoroughlytosweepawaybadluck.Theyalsodecoratetheirhouseswithredlanternsandcouplets,59symbolizegoodfortuneandhappiness.OnNewYear’sEve,familiesgathertogethertohaveabigdinner.Thedinnerusuallyincludesdumplings,fish,andotherdeliciousfoods,eachwith60specialmeaning.Forexample,fishrepresentssurplus,anddumplingslooklikeancientChinesegoldingots,61(bring)wealthandgoodluck.DuringtheSpringFestival,peoplevisittheirrelativesandfriends,exchanginggreetingsandgifts.Childrenareespeciallyhappybecausetheycanreceiveredenvelopes62moneyfromtheirelders.Theyalsoplaygamesandwatchliondances,whichare63(tradition)activitiesduringthefestival.TheSpringFestivalnotonly64(reflect)Chineseculturebutalsostrengthensfamilybonds.Itisatimewhenpeopleforgettheirworriesandenjoythejoyofbeingtogether.Eventhoughmodernlifeisfast-paced,theSpringFestivalremains65importantpartofChinesepeople’slives.第四部分写作（共两节，满分35分）第一节短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。Lastweek,ItookpartinaEnglishspeechcompetitionheldbyourschool.Thethemeofthecompetitionwas“MyDream”.Ispentalotoftimeprepareforit.Iwroteaspeechdraftandpracticeditagainandagain.Myteachergavememanyusefuladvicesonhowtoimprovemypronunciationandbodylanguage.Onthedayofthecompetition,Iwasalittlenervousatfirst.ButwhenIsawmyteacherandclassmatessittingintheaudience,Ifeltmoreconfident.Ispokeclearandfluently,andItriedmybesttoexpressmyfeelingaboutmydream.WhenIfinishedmyspeech,theaudiencegavemeawarmlyapplause.Finally,Iwonthefirstprize.IwassoexcitingthatIcouldn’thelpcrying.ThiscompetitionnotonlyhelpedmeimprovemyEnglishspeakingskills,butalsotaughtmethataslongasweworkhard,wewillachieveourdreams.Iwillneverforgetthismeaningfulexperience.第二节书面表达（满分25分）假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Peter来信询问你校近期举办的“科技节”活动。请你根据以下提示给他回信，内容包括：活动时间和主题；主要活动（如科技作品展览、机器人比赛、科普讲座等）；你的感受和收获。注意：1.词数100左右；2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；3.开头和结尾已为你写好，不计入总词数。DearPeter,I’mgladtoreceiveyourletteraskingabouttheScienceandTechnologyFestivalheldinourschoolrecently._________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________IhopeyoucanvisitourschoolnextyearandexperiencetheScienceandTechnologyFestivalwithus.Yours,LiHua参考答案与详细解析第一部分听力（30分）1-5CABAB6-10CAACB11-15ACABC16-20ABACB（听力材料及听力原文略，考生可结合录音进行针对性练习，重点关注对话中的细节信息、场景推断及人物态度。）第二部分阅读（40分）第一节（30分）B解析：主旨大意题。文章主要介绍了数字技术融入乌镇发展，对当地旅游业的游客参与度和满意度产生的影响，结合数据和具体案例说明数字技术的作用，故选B。A项“介绍乌镇历史”、C项“比较浙江不同景点”、D项“解释如何保护文化遗产”均未提及。B解析：细节理解题。根据表格数据，Month3的游客满意度为15%，相较于Month2的85%大幅下降，故选B。A项“Month3游客参与度最高”错误，Month2参与度最高（35%）；C项“游客参与度和满意度始终同步上升”错误，Month3两者均下降；D项“Month1游客满意度最低”错误，Month3最低。A解析：词义猜测题。根据上下文，数字技术被融入乌镇的发展，带来了新变化，integrated意为“结合、融入”，与combined同义，故选A。B项“比较”、C项“分离”、D项“取代”均不符合语境。B解析：细节理解题。根据第二段第一句，作者遇到失聪骑手后学习了ASL，能够更好地与教练、队友沟通，因此感到有归属感，故选B。A项“找到志同道合的爱马之人”、C项“获得比赛机会”、D项“遇到理解她残疾的教练”均不是核心原因。C解析：细节理解题。根据第二段“Duringpractice,Ifixmygaze...glancesidewaysatmyASLinterpreterasshesignsthecoach’sinstructions”可知，作者练习时通过观察口译员的手语获取指令，故选C。A项“只关注自己的马”、B项“直接与教练沟通”、D项“与队友练习ASL”均不符合原文。B解析：推理判断题。根据最后一段，作者通过努力实现了自己的马术梦想，向世界证明失聪人士也能做到任何事，可推断她为自己的成就感到自豪，故选B。A项“曾放弃马术”、C项“不喜欢与口译员合作”、D项“第一个失聪马术运动员”均未提及。B解析：细节理解题。根据第一段“ithasbeendifficulttofindwaystoquantifythesebenefits”可知，研究自然对心理健康影响的主要挑战是量化其益处，故选B。A项“找到足够的参与者”、C项“选择合适的绿地”、D项“测量认知功能”均不是核心挑战。C解析：细节理解题。根据第二段“Themodelfocusesonthreekeyfactors:theamountofcontactpeoplehavewithnature,thequalityofthatcontact,andtheindividual’spersonalcharacteristics”可知，模型关注与自然的接触（数量和质量）以及个人特征，故选C。A项“绿地类型”、B项“在自然中花费的时间”、D项“绿地位置”均不全面。A解析：细节理解题。根据第三段“urbanplannersshouldprioritizecreatingmoregreenspacesindenselypopulatedareas”可知，Bratman建议城市规划者在人口密集区域建造更多绿地，故选A。B项“鼓励人们搬到农村”、C项“减少城市绿地数量”、D项“专注保护现有绿地”均不符合原文。B解析：细节理解题。根据第一段“Sense4Safety...isdesignedtohelpelderlypeopleliveindependentlybydetectingfallrisksandprovidingtimelyassistance”可知，该系统的设计目的是检测跌倒风险并提供帮助，故选B。A项“治疗老年人疾病”、C项“帮助老年人学习新技能”、D项“连接老年人与家人”均未提及。A解析：词义猜测题。根据第二段“interveningwhenitdetectssubtlechangesbeforeanaccidentoccurs”可知，proactive意为“主动的、预防性的”，即在事故发生前采取行动，故选A。B项“事故后快速响应”、C项“等待他人行动”、D项“专注于治疗事故”均不符合语境。C解析：细节理解题。根据第三段“Ironically,thosewhoneedthistechnologythemost...mightbethelasttoaccessit,exacerbatingthedigitaldivideinhealthcare”可知，AI在老年护理中应用的挑战是可能扩大数字鸿沟，故选C。A项“对大多数家庭来说太贵”、B项“无法准确检测跌倒风险”、D项“需要太多人力监督”均未提及。C解析：细节理解题。根据第三段“AIcanhelp,butitcannotreplacethehumantouchneededtohelpsomeoneeat,bathe,ordress”可知，ReginaShih认为AI是有用的工具，但不能替代人类护理，故选C。A项“完全替代人类护理员”、B项“对老年人无用”、D项“比人类护理更有效”均与原文不符。第二节（10分）36-40AEBGD解析：36.空格后主要讲睡眠的重要性及建议，故此处应选A（保证充足睡眠），总领该段内容。37.空格前讲要关注天然、未加工的食物，空格后讲限制不健康食物摄入，E项（这些食物提供必需的营养和能量）衔接上下文，说明健康食物的好处，故选E。38.空格前讲要找到喜欢的运动，保证每周适度锻炼，B项（让运动成为日常生活的一部分）进一步强调运动的持续性，衔接自然，故选B。39.空格前讲找到健康的减压方式，空格后讲与人交流也能减压，G项（压力是生活的正常部分，但不应被它控制）承上启下，说明压力的普遍性及应对态度，故选G。40.空格后讲建立健康生活方式需要时间和耐心，不要对自己太苛刻，D项（保持一致，对自己友善）总领该段，强调坚持和包容自己，故选D。第三部分语言知识运用（45分）第一节（30分）41-45BAABA46-50ACBCA51-55ABACB56-60DCACB解析：41.wakeupearly早起，固定搭配，故选B。getup侧重“起床”，此处强调“醒来”，更贴合语境。42.milkthecows挤牛奶，固定搭配，故选A。ride（骑）、clean（打扫）、feed（喂养）均不符合农场劳作的语境。30名不同年龄的学生由一位老师教，taughtbyasingleteacher为过去分词短语作后置定语，故选A。led（带领）、guided（指导）、trained（训练）均不如taught贴合“学校教学”语境。根据后文“shelovedreadingandwriting”可知，祖母是聪明的学生，bright聪明的，故选B。lazy（懒惰的）、slow（迟钝的）、quiet（安静的）均不符合语境。spendtimedoingsth花费时间做某事，结合后文“books”，可知是阅读书籍，故选A。writing（写）、selling（卖）、borrowing（借）均不符合语境。尽管没什么钱，她还是努力用零花钱买书，trytodosth努力做某事，故选A。refuse（拒绝）、forget（忘记）、fail（失败）均不符合语境。得到一本新故事书，祖母应该是兴奋的，excited兴奋的，故选C。sad（悲伤的）、angry（生气的）、nervous（紧张的）均不符合语境。根据“basedonit”可知，她基于这本故事书写了自己的故事，wrote写，故选B。read（读）、told（告诉）、heard（听到）均不符合语境。志愿者教学生新歌和游戏，让学校生活更有趣，interesting有趣的，故选C。boring（无聊的）、difficult（困难的）、tiring（疲惫的）均不符合语境。祖母的故事对“我”影响很大，influenced影响，故选A。worried（担心）、surprised（惊讶）、confused（困惑）均不符合语境。尽管生活艰难，她始终保持积极的态度，attitude态度，故选A。feeling（感觉）、thought（想法）、idea（主意）均不符合语境。这些故事总是给“我”温暖和力量，always总是，故选B。never（从不）、hardly（几乎不）、sometimes（有时）均不符合语境。地球是我们的家，我们需要保护它，protect保护，故选A。destroy（破坏）、ignore（忽视）、leave（离开）均不符合语境。我们可以停止使用塑料袋，改用可重复使用的袋子，stopdoings