河南省商开大联考2022-2023学年高二上学期期末考试英语试题

2/2商开大联考2022~2023学年上学期期末考试高二英语考生注意：1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。4.本卷命题范围：北师大版选择性必修第二册~选择性必修第三册Unit8。第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。1.Whatdoesthemanlikebestaboutthephone?A.Thecamera.B.Theappearance.C.Thememory.2.WhereistheBusinessCenter?A.Oppositeabusstation.B.OnRainbowStreet.C.OnRibbonStreet.3.Howdoesthemanfeelabouthisoraltest?A.Disappointed.B.Satisfied.C.Confused.4.Whichbookdoesthewomanrecommendtotheman?A.Theoneabouthistory.B.Theoneaboutachessplayer.C.Theoneaboutaphotographer.5.Whatarethespeakersmainlydiscussing?A.Whatfurnituretheyneed.B.Whentheygoshopping.C.Howtheyarrangethefurniture.第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。6.Whatisthemangoingtodo?A.MeettheHRmanager.B.Interviewtwonewworkers.C.Testthesystem.7.Whatdoesthewomanagreetodo?A.Attendameeting.B.Trainthenewworkers.C.Learnmoreaboutthesystem.听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。8Wheredoestheconversationprobablytakeplace?A.Inabookshop.B.Inaclassroom.C.Inanapartment.9.Whenwillthebooksarrive?A.ThisFriday.B.ThisSunday.C.NextMonday.听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。10.Howmanypeopledoesthemanmention?A.Two.B.Three.C.Four.11.Whatisthethiefdoing?A.Stealingapicture.B.Standingnearabank.C.Pushingabigshoppingbag.12.Whatdoesthewomanaskthemantodonext?A.Catchthethief.B.Asksomeoneforhelp.C.Watchoutforthethief.听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。13.Whatmightbetherelationshipbetweenthespeakers?A.Golferandfan.B.Golferandreporter.C.Golferandcoach.14.Whatisimportantforagoodgolferaccordingtotheman?A.Lotsofpractice.B.Talent.C.Agoodcoach.15Howoldwasthemanwhenhewonhisfirstplay?A.Six.B.Seven.C.Eight.16.Whatdoesthemanwanttodorightaway?A.Cleancloths.B.Giveareport.C.Haveabath.听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。17.Whatcanwelearnaboutthespeakerwhenshewas20yearsold?A.Shedidn’tknowwhatshewantedtobe.B.Shehadanunfortunateaccident.C.Shewantedtobeanofficelady.18.Whomarethestudentsexpectedtohelpafterfinishingthecourse?A.Thedeaf.B.Theblind.C.Theold.19.Whywerethespeaker’sparentshappy?A.Shehadfoundajob.B.Shewouldearnherownliving.C.Shecouldattendthecourseforfree.20.Whatdidthespeakerdointhefinallesson?A.Shetoldastory.B.Shesignedasong.C.Shecomposedapoem.第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。A4FreePoetryConteststoEnterin2023Hereyou’llfindfreepoetryconteststhat’llhelpyougrowasbeginnersandsupportyourwritingcareeratthesametime.BlueMountainArtsPoetryContestDeadline:January3,2023Submissionrequirements:It’sapoetrycontestwheresubmittedpoemscanberhyming(押韵)ornon-rhyming.There’snolimitedentries.Winnerswillbecontactedwithin45daysofthedeadlinedate.Publishedaswellasunpublishedworksareaccepted.Prize:FirstPrize—$350;Secondprize—$200;Thirdprize—$100.Inaddition,thewinningpoemswillbedisplayedonitswebsite.WergleFlompHumorPoetryContestDeadline:April2,2023Submissionrequirements:HeldbyWINNINGWRITERS,thispoetrycontestseekstoday’sbesthumorpoems.Submissionshouldbeofmaximumof250lines.There’snoagerestrictiontothecontest.Publishedaswellasunpublishedworksareaccepted.Prize:FirstPrize—$2,000plusatwo-yeargiftcertificatefromourco-sponsor,Duotrope(a$100value);SecondPrize—$500;ThirdPrize—$100.AlpineFellowshipPoetryContestDeadline:January1,2023Submissionrequirements:Applicantsmustbeaged18orabovewithallentriesinEnglish.Asinglepoemoracollectionofpoemsisacceptedatatimewithmaximumof500wordsperentry.Publishedaswellasunpublishedworksareaccepted.Prize:Firstprize—£3,000cash;Secondprize—£2,000travelexpense;Thirdplace—£1,000travelexpense.PoetLoreContestDeadline:April1,2023Submissionrequirements:Theyaccept5poems(maximum10pages)in1singledocument.Theydonotacceptworksthathavebeenpreviouslypublished.Prize:FirstPrize—$1,500;SecondPrize—$750;ThirdPrize—$500.1.WherecanyouseeyourworksifyouwintheBlueMountainArtsPoetryContest?A.Onitswebsite. B.Inanewspaper. C.Inapoetrybook. D.Onagiftcard.2.Whichcontestoffersatravelexpenseasaprize?A.BlueMountainArtsPoetryContest. B.WergleFlompHumorPoetryContest.C.AlpineFellowshipPoetryContest. D.PoetLoreContest.3.What’sspecialaboutPoetLoreContest?A.Ithasalinelimitonworks. B.Itonlyacceptsunpublishedworks.C.Ithasnoagelimitforparticipants. D.Ithasthelatestdeadline.BNehalisastudentwithaphysicaldisability.Inhisfreetime,Nehallovesplayingoutdoorswithhisneighbourhoodfriends.HealsoattendsChol,oneofthefewmainstreamschoolsinSuva,Fiji,whichofferssuitablelearningforchildrenwithdisabilities.TheschoolhasadaptedsomeofitsfacilitiessinceNehaljoinedtocreateanaccessibleandmoreinclusivelearningenvironmentforstudentswithdisabilities.ThisbeganwithplacinghisclassroomclosertothebathroomsothatNehalcouldmorereadilyaccessthefacility.Asheandhisclassmatesprogressintheiracademicstudieseachyear,theirclassroomdoesn’tmovelikeotherclassroomstoensureNehalconsistentlyhasacomfortableaccesstothefacilityeveryyear.Withintheclassroom,studentstypicallysitondeskswithbenches.ToadapttoNehal’sphysicalimpairment(障碍),hehasaspecialandlowerdeskpositionedagainstawallthathecanlean(倚靠)onforadditionalbacksupport.Histeachersworkcloselywithhimonhisliteracyandnumeracy(算术)skillswhilehehascontinuedtostandoutinlanguages—Hindi,EnglishandFijian.BeinginaninclusivelearningenvironmentisimportanttoNehal’sdevelopment.ThesupportofhisclassmatesbothinandoutsideoftheclassroomhasalsobeenkeytoNehal’slearningexperience.Frombeingashouldertoleanonashewalksaroundtheschooltomakingsurehejoinsinclassprojects,hisclassmatesarealwaysonhandtoensureNehalisincludedintheday-to-dayactivitiesatschool.Attheendoftheschoolday,Nehalispickedupbyhismotherandhissister.Oncehome,theyarejoinedbyNitin,Nehal’sfather.“HeislikeagiftGodgivesus,”hisfatherspeaksofNehal.4.What’sNehal’sclassroominChollike?A.Ithasabathroom. B.Itmoveseveryyear.C.Itisonthetopfloor. D.Itremainsinoneplace.5.WhydoestheschoolarrangeaspecialdeskforNehal?A.Totakecareofhisphysicalcondition. B.Tolethimlistentotheteacherscarefully.C.Topreventhimtalkingwithotherstudents. D.Tohelphimgooutoftheclassroommoreeasily.6.HowdoNehal’sclassmatestreathim?A.Theyignorehim. B.Theytalkbehindhisback.C.Theyofferhimmuchhelp. D.Theychallengehimconstantly.7.WhichwordcanbestdescribeNehal?A.Ambitious. B.Lucky. C.Selfish. D.Lazy.CEversinceIcanremember,Ihavealwaysenjoyedmakingmyselfandotherslaugh.Humorhasalwaysplayedanimportantroleinmylifeasitwaskeyinhelpingmedevelopmypersonalityandoutlookonlifethroughchildhood.WhatIdidnotrealize,however,waswhyorhowitmademefeelbetteraboutmyself.Iwantedtofindoutjustexactlyhowhumoraffectsusinourlives,andwhetherornotitplayedakeyroleinhavingalongerandmoreenjoyablelife.Frommyresearch,Ifoundmanydifferentwaysthathumorcaninfluenceouremotionsandphysicalhealth.Thesebenefitsaresplitintotwodifferentsections:short-termandlong-term.Oneexampleoftheshort-termbenefitsofhumorwouldbethatlaughterinducesrelaxation.Itgetsmanymusclesmovinginyourbody.Onereasonwhymusclesgettenseislackofoxygenflow.Onceyoulaughasaresponsetohumor,itincreasestheflowofoxygentothemuscles,resultinginamorerelaxedandmoreenergy-filledbody.Anothershort-termbenefitisthatlaughtercausespainrelief.Thisisachievedbyintensestimulationoforgansinthebody,whichleadstoincreasedcirculationandbloodflow.Asforthelong-termeffects,theycanbejustasrewarding.Forexample,onethinglaughtercandointhelongrunisimprovetheoverallhealthoftheheart.Thishappensbecause,likestatedearlier,laughterincreasesbloodflow.Sincetheheartistheorganthatregulatesallbloodflowinthebody,naturallytheheartbecomesstrengthened.Onelastlong-termbenefitfromhumoristhatitcanreducestresslevelsandboosttheimmunesystem.8.Whatbenefitofhumordoestheauthormentioninthefirstparagraph?A.Itletstheauthormakemorefriends.B.Itkeepstheauthorphysicallyhealthy.C.Ithelpstoshapetheauthor’scharacter.DItfreestheauthorfromanystress.9.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“induces”inParagraph4mean?A.Skips. B.Decreases. C.Needs. D.Causes.10.Howdoestheauthorshowthelong-termbenefitsofhumor?A.Bytellingstories. B.Bygivingexamples.C.Bylistingnumbers. D.Bymakingcomparisons.11.Whatisthebesttitleforthetext?A.HealthBenefitsofHumorB.StoriesAboutLaughterC.SuccessBroughtbyHumorD.HumorinDailyLifeDWhenfireworksarelitincelebrationoftheNewYear,wildbirdsoftenexperiencelastingharmfuleffects.AninternationalteamofresearcherstrackedArcticmigratory(迁移的)geeseastheytraveledinDenmark,GermanyandtheNetherlandsovereightNewYearperiodstostudytheimpactsoffireworks.Datafrom347geeseshowedthatbirdssuddenlyleavewheretheyaresleepingonNewYear’sEveandflyfartherawayfromwherepeopleare.Geese’livesweredisturbedbythenoiseandflashesandthesegeeseendeduprestingtwohourslessandsometimesflyingnonstopasfaras310milescomparedtothenightswhentherewerenofireworks.GeesespendtheirwinterinWesternEuropetoescapeextremeArcticwintersintheirbreedinggrounds.Still,wintersherearemaybenotseverelycold,butratherdark.Aspredators(食肉动物)arearoundinthedark,geesecanonlysearchforfoodinthelighthours.Duringthenight,theyusuallysettleonsmalllakestosaveenergyandrestinrelativesafety.DuringNewYear’sEve,geeseareheavilyscared,asthefireworkssoundsandflashinglightsareunexpectedtothemandtheyviewthemasathreattotheirlife.Buttheirchangedbehaviordidn’tendwiththefireworks.Thegeesedidn’treturntotheiroriginalsleepinglocationsandspentmoretimesearchingforfoodtostoreenergyfordaysafterthecelebrationsended.Theresearchershopethatthefindingswillbeusedtoimprovefireworksmanagement.Theywanttoprovidedecisionmakerswithrealnumberstosupporttheirdiscussions.Asalreadystatedabove,theysuggestthatsomemeasuresshouldbetakenforgeesetoescapefireworks’disturbanceduringNewYear’sEve—nationwideregulationsregardingnaturereserveareasandsomecentralizationoffireworksdisplays,aswellaslightingpublicfireworksinurbanareasawayfromwherethegeeselive.12.WhatmaytheauthorthinkofthesituationofgeeseduringtheNewYear?A.Worrying. B.Promising.C.Touching. D.Amusing.13.Whatcanweknowaboutgeesefromparagraph3?A.Theyenjoyflyinginthedark.B.TheyspendthewinterintheArctic.C.Theyareterrifiedoffireworks.D.Theyusuallysearchforfoodatnight.14.Whatistheresearchers’adviceonprotectinggeese?A.Settingupgooseparksinthecity.B.BanningfireworksduringNewYear’sEve.C.Persuadingpeopleintobuyingsilentfireworks.D.Settingofffireworksfarfromgeese’habitats.15.Inwhichsectioncanthistextbefoundinanewspaper?A.Travel. B.Nature. C.Culture. D.Education.第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。Withthousandsofoptions,howwillyouchooseacareerthat’srightforyou?____16____Fortunately,whenyoufollowanorganizedprocess,youwillincreaseyourchancesofmakingagooddecision.Assessyourself.____17____Yourvalues,interestsandsoftskills,incombinationwithyourpersonalitytype,makesomeoccupationsagoodfitforyou,andotherscompletelyinappropriate.Useself-assessmenttoolsandcareerteststogatherinformationaboutyourtraitsandgeneratelistsofoccupationsthataresuitable.Makeamasterlistofcareers.Youprobablyhaveseverallistsofoccupationsinfrontofyouatthispoint—onegeneratedbyeachoftheself-assessmenttoolsyouused.____18____Explorethecareersonyourlist.Atthispoint,you’llbethrilledthatyouhavemanagedtonarrowyourlistdowntoonly10to20options.____19____Findjobdescriptionsandeducational,trainingandlicensingrequirementsinpublishedsources.Learnaboutadvancementopportunities.Usegovernment-producedlabormarketinformationtogetdataaboutearningsandjoboutlook.____20____Finally,afterdoingallyourexploration,youareprobablyreadytomakeyourchoice.Picktheoccupationthatyouaremostsatisfiedwithbasedonalltheinformationyouhavegathered.Realizethatyouareallowedtodoitifyouchangeyourmindaboutyourchoiceatanypointinyourlife.Manypeoplechangetheircareersatleastafewtimes.A.Knowwhatyourgoalis.B.Makeyourcareerchoice.C.Yourlistdoesn’thavetobetoolong.D.Youshouldcombinethemintoonemasterlist.E.Nowyoucangetsomebasicinformationonyourlist.F.Ifyoudon’tknowwhattodo,thetaskmayseemdifficult.G.Beforeyouchoosetherightcareer,youmustlearnaboutyourself.第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。MydadandgrandmotherweredeclaredCOVID-19positiveandmymotherandIimmediatelyhadtotakeasteptosendthemtothehospital.Mymotherwas____21____andsowasI.Wehadtochecktoseeifwecould____22____bedsforthemtogettreated.Thisperiodwassochallengingbutluckilytheyweresenttothehospitalattheearliesttimepossible.Iwas____23____thatwehadshiftedmydadandgrandmotherinsaferzonesbutaswetwowere____24____toallofthis,mymomandIalsohadtogetourselves____25____.Andthenmymom’sreportwaspositive.Iwasfullof____26____butgraduallyIbelievedthateverythingwouldgetbacktonormal.Duetothe____27____,IwasalsofacingissueswithmyhealthbutthenIkepttellingmyselfnottoloseheartandIkeptrepeatingIwouldnever____28____myhopeofrecovering.Ikeptlisteningtoinspiringstoriesand____29____themwithMomandDadtoo.Istarted_____30_____thatMomandDadweredancingandthatI_____31_____theirdancing.Ialsoimaginedthatwewerelaughinginthelivingroomandcelebratingthisjourneyof_____32_____.Idreamedofmyselfrunningaroundwithasmileandfeelingthankfulthatwewereallinperfect_____33_____.JustaweeklaterwealltestedCOVID-19negative!Noweveryoneishealthyand_____34_____healed(治愈).Thanksforthisbeautiful_____35_____ofhealing.NevergiveupandkeeponrepeatingthateverythingisOKanditwillbe.21.A.confused B.terrified C.amazed D.amused22.A.analyze B.admire C.get D.expand23.A.grateful B.certain C.sorry D.crazy24.A.hidden B.dismissed C.addicted D.exposed25.A.examined B.sponsored C.persuaded D.comforted26.A.ambition B.intelligence C.anxiety D.pity27.A.desire B.stress C.debate D.insight28.A.accept B.remember C.gather D.abandon29.A.charged B.shared C.associated D.brought30.A.explaining B.forgiving C.promising D.imagining31.A.participatedin B.knockedoff C.arrangedfor D.showedoff32.A.security B.discovery C.recovery D.recognition33.A.defeat B.health C.reaction D.adventure34.A.barely B.secretly C.totally D.casually35.A.journey B.reputation C.talent D.potential第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。Aneveninggala(演出)ofclassicalChineseoperawasbroadcastonStatebroadcasterChinaCentralTelevisiononSundaytocelebratetheNewYearandpromotethe____36____(rich)ofChineseculture.Adiverseprogramwasbroadcastupholdingthelong-standingtraditionofperformingoperasnationwideasanimportantpartofcelebrationsatceremoniesandfestivals,____37____(especial)grandoccasionssuchasNewYearandtheSpringFestival.LeadingoperaartistsfromacrossthecountrygatheredinBeijing____38____(perform)atthegala.ThegalaopenedwiththetaleofMuGuiying,astoryabouthowagirlbecameageneraltoprotect____39____(she)peopleduringtheNorthernSongDynasty.Theperformance____40____(sing)inthestylesofPekingOpera,HebeiBangzi,popularinHebeiprovince,andYujuOpera,originatinginHenanprovince.Thegalanotonlyfeaturedwell-knownoperaticgenres(流派)suchasPekingOpera,but____41____(promote)thoseofminorpopularity,whichentertainedpeople____42____(live)inunderdevelopedregions.TheminorgenresincludedPingxianOperainQinghaiprovinceandCaidiaoOperafromtheGuangxiZhuangautonomousregion,____43____developedfromfolksinging____44____dancing.Performersreenacted(重现)severalfolk____45____(tale)abouthistoricfiguresthatareregularlyperformedacrossthecountry.第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)第一节(满分15分)46.如今手机和网络越来越普及，很多人认为纸质报纸没有存在的必要了。你校英语角对“Whetherprintednewspapersshouldexist?”这个话题进行了一次讨论。请你根据以下表格的内容介绍这次讨论的情况并简要阐述自己的观点。观点理由纸质报纸有存在的意义可以随时阅读，不受时间限制；版面大，字大，阅读方便；内容的可信度相对较高。纸质报纸没有存在的意义携带不方便;不环保。注意：1.写作词数应为80左右;2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。Whetherprintednewspapersshouldexist?___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________第二节(满分25分)47.阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。Thedramaticincidentoccurredduringanafternoonhike.FourfriendsandteammatesfromNorthwestCollegeinCody,Wyoming,hadbeenhikingintheMontananationalforest.Astheyhiked,abearsuddenlyattackedtheclosesthikerBradyLowry.“ItshookmearoundandIdidn'tknowwhattodo,”Bradyrecalledtheterrifyingattack.Thebearshookhimbythearmandthenthrewhimaway.Brady'sfriend,KendallCummings,reactedquicklytotrytoscarethebearaway.Heyelledandkickedatthebearandpulledonthebear'sfur.“Ididn'twanttolosemyfriend,”saidKendall.“IcouldhaverunandpotentiallylostafriendbutIdidn'tdothat.IthoughtIwouldgethimoffandsavehim.”ThebearturneditsattentiontoKendallandknockedhimtotheground.Inprotectinghisfriend,Kendallbecamethetargetofthebear'sforcefulattack.Eventually,theotherteammatesscaredthebearenoughsothatitsoonwithdrewandranoff.Aftertheattack,Kendallwasbadlyinjured,buthemanagedtopullhimselfup.TheteammatesthenhelpedKendalloffthemountainbysupportinghisweightandcarryinghimpartoftheway.Oncetheboysreachedalocationwithcellservice,theydialed911forhelp.Afterhalfanhour,somerescuersarrivedatthescene.TheyexaminedKendallandBradyandtheyweresenttoBillingsClinicHospitalinarushfortheirinjuries.Bradybrokehisarmandsufferedseriouswoundsintheinitialattack.Kendallunderwentsurgeryformoreseriousinjuriesonhisfaceandarm.Bothboyswereontheroadtorecovery.Theirwrestlingcoach,JimZeigler,arrivedatthehospitalalongwiththerestoftheteamtooffersupport.注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。JimZeiglersanghighpraiseforhisteam,especiallyKendall.___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Brady'sparentscametothehospitalandthankedKendallforsavingtheirson'slife.___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

商开大联考2022~2023学年上学期期末考试高二英语第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)听力答案：1~5ACBBA6~10ABACB11~15CCBAB16~20CAACB第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。A【1~3题答案】【答案】1.A2.C3.