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2024年安徽省初中学业水平考试英语本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。第一部分听力(共四大题,满分20分)Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。()1.WhatdoesJohnlike?A. B. C.()2.Whatarethespeakersprobablygoingtodo?A. B. C.()3.Whobroketheglass?A.Tom. B.Thecat. C.Tom’smother.()4.Wherecanthewomangetanewstudentcard?A.Attheservicecenter.B.Inthedininghall.C.Intheofficebuilding.()5.Whatistheman?A.Anofficer. B.Awaiter. C.Afarmer.Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。()6.Whendidthemanmakehisfirstspeech?A.Lastweek. B.Lastmonth. C.Lastyear.()7.Howdidthemanfeelatfirst?A.Excited. B.Nervous. C.Surprised.听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。()8.Whatisthewoman’sdream?A.Tobeanactress.B.Tobeawriter.C.Tobeadoctor.()9.Whydidthemanchangehisdream?A.Helikesreadingbooks.B.Writingmakeshimhappy.C.Heworksforanewspaper.()10.Whatwillthemanprobablydonextmonth?A.Visitaprimaryschool.B.Giveatalkaboutfuture.C.Takepartinacompetition.Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题,请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。()11.Wheredoesthespeaker’sfatherprobablywork?A.Inacarfactory.B.Inaschool.C.Inabookstore.()12.Howlongdoesittakethespeakertogotoschoolbycar?A.About20minutes.B.About30minutes.C.About40minutes.()13.Whydoesthespeakerlikemath?A.Becauseofthespeaker’steacher.B.Becauseofthespeaker’smother.C.Becauseofthespeaker’sfather.()14.Whatdothespeakerandthefatherusuallydoattheweekend?A.Cookdinner. B.Gotothelibrary. C.Enjoymusic.()15.Whatdoesthespeakerexpressintheend?A.Interest. B.Pride. C.Thanks.Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。It’simportanttolearnhowto16
ReasonsIthelpsustomakefriends.●tohelpotherstofeelcaredabout●toshowthatweare17andfriendly
Itteachesushowtobefair.●tothinkaboutthe18ofotherpeopleandyourown
Itgivesusa19ofpurpose.
●todosomethingmeaningfulforothers●tomakeusfeelgoodabout20
第二部分语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。()21.—Artservesasabetweendifferentnations.
—Yes.Itreallyhelpscross⁃culturalcommunication.A.river B.wall C.palace D.bridge()22.Insummer,thetreesweplantedintheschoolarewithgreenleaves.
A.thick B.soft C.clear D.light()23.Withitsfamousmountains,lakes,andtowns,Anhuihassomuchtotourists.
A.guard B.offer C.push D.cost()24.Therecanbesometroubleatthebeginning,butthingswillwellintheend.
A.breakup B.giveupC.setout D.turnout()25.—Couldyoutelluswecanstartaconversationwithaforeigner?
—Talkingaboutweatherisagoodchoice.A.how B.whetherC.why D.when()26.—Excuseme,mayIuseyourdictionary?Iminebehind.
—Sure.Hereyouare.A.leave B.haveleftC.willleave D.wasleaving()27.—YourgrandpaclimbedthehillsothatIcouldn’tkeepupwithhim.
—Hetakesexerciseeveryday.A.quickly B.difficultlyC.patiently D.differently()28.—Thereisstillalongwaytogowefinishthetask.
—Don’tworry.Let’sgoonwithittogether.A.aslongas B.assoonasC.before D.because()29.The2024ParisOlympicGamesthisJuly.Don’tmissit.
A.holds B.willholdC.isheld D.willbeheld()30.—TheNationalMuseumofChinaisjustfiveminutes’walkaway.Wedon’thavetotakeataxi.—Wecangothereonfoot.
A.Mypleasure. B.Takecare.C.That’sright! D.Goodluck!Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。APetsaren’tjustafunmemberofthefamily.Theyarealsogoodforyourhealthandhappiness.Peoplewithpetsaremorelikely(可能的)tobe31.Playingwithacatortakingadogfordaily32aroundthegardengetsyoumovingyourbody,andoutinthefreshairtoo.
Spendingtimewithyourpethelpsyouget33.Talkingtoyourpetaboutyourworriescanmakeyoufeelcomfortableandhelpsyoufeel34.Whenyou’rewithyourpet,youcanletgoofproblems35yougivethemyourfullattention.
Havingananimalinthefamilyhelpsyoulearnnew36,likehowtoteachthemtounderstandorders,suchas“Sit”or“Liedown”.37gamestoplaywiththemallowsyoutopracticebeingcreative.Learninghowto38pets,understandingwhattheywantandmakingsurethattheylive39,teachesyoutounderstandothers’feelings.Petscanalsohelpyougettoknowotherdogownersonwalks,orhelpyoubecome40withthemwhenyoutellfunnystoriesaboutyourpets.
()31.A.active B.careful C.useful D.modern()32.A.tests B.talks C.showers D.walks()33.A.tired B.touched C.relaxed D.bored()34.A.prouder B.better C.wiser D.cuter()35.A.evenif B.as C.asif D.unless()36.A.skills B.languages C.cultures D.spirits()37.A.Watching B.Attending C.Inventing D.Winning()38.A.wakeup B.searchfor C.dependon D.lookafter()39.A.quietly B.happily C.lazily D.busily()40.A.friends B.relatives C.trainers D.membersBTraditionalChinesemedicine(TCM)ismagictome.Myinterestinitcamefrommy41.Yearsago,Ioftenhadheadaches,andmylifewasseriouslyinfluenced.I42manydifferentmethods.However,noneofthem43.Luckily,ImetwithadoctorofTCMduringmytripinChina.HeadvisedmetotakesomeChinesemedicine.SoIdid.Tomysurprise,my44wasgonewithinaweek.
Later,IfoundthatTCMcouldbeofgreathelptosome45lastingforalongtime,suchassleepingproblemsorphysicalpains.The46methodsinTCMalsotookmywife’sinterest.Withher47,I’mrunningawebsitetointroduceTCM.Iwanttohelppeopleunderstandthatiftheyhaveblems,theycantryTCM.
AlltheseexperienceswithTCMledmeto49ancientChinesephilosophy(哲学),formanyofTCMideas,suchasyinandyang,andqi,were50inspired(启发)byit.Sincethen,IhavesteppedontotheroadtolearningaboutChineseculure.
()41.A.habit B.education C.service D.experience()42.A.reported B.tried C.kept D.taught()43.A.worked B.started C.failed D.appeared()44.A.wealth B.courage C.chance D.pain()45.A.illnesses B.hobbies C.projects D.abilities()46.A.expensive B.helpful C.social D.blind()47.A.check B.worry C.support D.doubt()48.A.health B.food C.family D.job()49.A.drop B.write C.study D.create()50.A.recently B.rapidly C.suddenly D.directlyⅦ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。A:Goodafternoon.HowcanIhelpyou?B:Hello.51
A:Areyouthinkingaboutabustouroraboattour?B:Abustour.52
A:Outsidethehotel.B:Oh,perfect.53
A:At6o’clockinthemorning.Thebusleaveseveryhour.Here’ssomemoreinformation.B:Thankyou.54
A:Youdon’thaveto.Youcanjustwaitoutsidethehotel.B:Gotit.55Thankyouverymuch.
A:You’rewelcome.Enjoyyourtour!A.I’lljustwaitthere.B.Howabouttheprice?C.DoIhavetobookaseat?D.Whenistheearliestbus?E.WhereshallIgetonthebus?F.I’veenjoyedthecityverymuch.G.I’dliketogoonatourofthecity.第三部分阅读(共两节,满分40分)Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)第一节阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。AWATERSAFETYFORALLGensonDPEteacheslife⁃savingskillsFORALL.JoinusinJulyforFamilyWaterSafetyEducationandouryearlySafetyAroundWaterProgram.FamilyWaterSafetyEducation·Time:5:30~7:30p.m·FREEforDPEmembers·Monday,July8:ReachorThrow, ·Community:$10adayforafamilyDon’tGo·Wednesday,July10:LifeJacketsandBoating·Friday,July12:OpenSwim ·ParentMUSTbeinthepool!·Sunday,July14:Celebration!SafetyAroundWaterProgramTime:4:45~5:15p.m.Forchildrenaged11~145:30~6:00p.m. REGISTERNOW6:15~6:45p.m. GensonDPE.comJuly22~25,2024 Contact:AndyMarkham Email:andy@※Notes:1.register(登记)2.contact(联系)()56.WhenistheCelebration?A.OnSunday. B.OnMonday.C.OnWednesday. D.OnFriday.()57.AtwhatagecanachildjoininSafetyAroundWaterProgram?A.6. B.8. C.10. D.12.()58.WhatcanwelearnaboutGensonDPE?A.Itkeepsopenallyearround.B.Itteacheslife⁃savingskills.C.Itprovidesfreeprogramsforall.D.Ithastwoprogramseveryday.BIt’salwaysagoodtingtohaveahobby.ForMissPatty,aschoolbusdriverinErieCounty,herhobbyofknitting(编织)hasmadeherreallytouchthecommunity.MissPattyalwayswantedtodosomethingwithhersparetimetohelpthestudents.Afteraconversationwithoneofthestudents,thingstookaturnfromknittingonehattoknittingmorehats.“Theoneboygetsonthebus,andhegoes‘whatareyoudoing?’Isaid,‘I’mmakingahat.’Hesaid,‘Thatwouldbegreathavingsuchawarmhatinicywinter.’SoIsaid,‘Whatcolorwouldyoulike?’Thatstartedeverything,”MissPattytoldthelocalnewspaper.Severalyearshavepassedsincethatday,andMissPattyhasalreadyknitted7,083hatsforstudentsinhersparetime.Sometimesshewillgetthestudent’sfavoritecolorbeforeshebeginstheproject.WhatismoremovingisthatMissPattybuysallthematerials(材料)usingherownmoney.Somepeopledogivehergiftcardsaroundtheholidaystohelp,butshestillputsoutalotofherownmoney.Alongwithmakinghatsforthestudentsthatwillkeepthemwarm,MissPattyalsogetspraiseforbeingatrustedfiendtothestudents.()59.WhatmadeMissPattydecidetoknitmorehats?A.AdrivetoErieCounty.B.Ashowofcolorfulhats.C.Aletterinthenewspaper.D.Aconversationwithaboy.()60.WhydoesMissPattyknitsomanyhatsinhersparetime?A.Topracticeherskill.B.Tobetterherbusiness.C.Tomakemorefriends.D.Togiftstudentsforwinter.()61.WhatmakesMissPatty’sactmoremoving?A.Sherefusesothers’help.B.Shebuysmaterialswithherownmoney.C.Sheworksduringholidays.D.Sheknitshatsofdifferentcolorsforkids.()62.WhichofthefollowingbestdeseribesMissPatty?A.Humorous. B.Honest.C.Caring. D.Shy.CDuringtheirbusylives,peopledonotpaymuchattentiontotheexpirydates(有效期)onthefoodintheirfridges.Asaresult,alotoffoodisforgottenaboutandwasted.However,accordingtoarecentresearch,beingawareof(意识到)whatyouthrowawaycanhelpyouwasteless.Theresearchersmeasured(计量)foodwastefrom154familiesacrosstheUK.Halfofthesefamiliesintheresearchwereaskedtolistthefruitsandvegetablestheyhadboughtandtheirexpirydates.Thefamiliesstuckthelistonthefridgedoorandreceivedatextmessageeverydaytellingthemtocheckit.Theotherhalfdidnothavetomakealistanddidnotreceivetextmessages.Overasix⁃weekperiod,allthefamilieswereaskedtomeasuretheirfoodwasteattheendofeachweek.Theresearchersweresurprisedtofindthatmakinglistsandgettingtextsmadelittledifferencetohowmuchfoodwaswasted.However,eachfamilyintheresearchwastedlessfood—about0.1kiloaweek.Theresearcherscarriedontheresearchforsixmonths,andfoundthatallthefamiliescontinuedtowastelessfood.Thisshowsthatjustmeasuringfoodwasteencouragespeopletopaycloserattentiontoitandthrowlessaway.()63.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“it”inParagraph2referto(指的是)?A.Theresearch. B.Thelist.C.Thedoor. D.Themessage.()64.WhatisintroducedinParagraph3aboutthesix⁃weekresearch?A.Itspurpose. B.Itsmethod.C.Itssteps. D.Itsresults.()65.Whichofthefollowingisthebesttitle(标题)forthetext?A.MeasureFoodWastetoStopItB.PayAttentiontoWhatYouBuyC.ChecktheFoodBeforeStoringItD.GiveThoughttoYourBusyLifeDIfyougetangrymanytimesinaday,itistimeforyoutothinkabouthowtodealwithit.Herearesomeofmysuggestions.Whenyouareangry,trytotellyourselfthroughanothervoicethatyouareangryandthatitisnotabadthing.Itjustshowsthatyouhavedifferentideas.Acceptthatmanythingsarenot100%rightorwrong.Inourcommunicationwithothers,thefinalpurposeisnottodecidewhoisrightandwhoiswrong,buttolookforsomethingincommon.Ifyoustillfeelstronganger,trytakingadeepbreath(呼吸)andletangeroutofyourbodyalongwiththebreath.Don’tsayangrywordswhenyouareveryangry,foryouwillregretsayingthemwhenyoucooldown.Discussingwithathirdpartyishelpful.Itishardforthetwopartiesinangertounderstandeachother,buttheideaofanoutsidercanhelpbothpartiestogetmutual(相互的)understanding.Angerisjustoneofthemanyemotions(情绪)thatmakeushuman,andtowellmanageitaddstoourabilitytotrulyunderstandtheworld.()66.Whatisthefinalpurposeofcommunicationwithotherpeople?A.Toshowdifferentideas.B.Tolookforsomethingincommon.C.Toacceptusefulsuggestions.D.Todecidewhetheroneisrightornot.()67.Whatdoesthewriteradviseustodowhenwecan’tcooldown?A.Sayangrywords.B.Trytakingadeepbreath.C.Controlourvoices.D.Stoptalkingwithothers.()68.Whatdoestheunderlinedword“party”inParagraph4mean?A.Anactivity. B.Avisitor.C.Aperson. D.Ameeting.()69.Whatisthetextmainlyabout?A.Howtomanageanger.B.Howtoshowfeelings.C.Howtodealwithregrets.D.Howtounderstandtheworld.EDennisHongandhisstudentsdesign(设计)human⁃likerobots.ThisincludesacookingrobotcalledProjectYORI.YORIisonlythelatestofHong’srobotinventions.There’sDAVID,theworld’sfirstandonlycarthatcanbedrivenbytheblind.AndSAFFiR,atwo⁃leggedrobotthatcandodangerousworkthathumansareoftenunabletodo.Hongisfindingplentyofworkforhisrobots.Whenhewasaskedabouthisbiggestsuccess,HongchosetherobotcalledDARwIn⁃OP.Hethoughtitwasoneofthemostwidelyusedhuman⁃likerobotsforresearchandeducation.Hong’steammadeDARwIn’sdesignfreeforanyonetouse.Theyhaveseenmanyprojectsusingthedesign.Andtheyconsideritagifttotheroboticscommunity.“Manypeopleonlywanttoseeoursuccessesandnotthefailuresthatcamebeforethose,butfailureissimplyasteppingstoneindevelopingnewtechnology.Ifyou’retooafraidoffailure,thenyouonlygettowalkonthesaferside,andthenthere’snoinnovation(创新),”saidHong.“Itellmystudentstotrybreakingtherobot.Iftherobotdoesn’tfallanddoesn’tbreak,wedon’tgettolearnanything.”()70.WhichrobotisthemostrecentinventionbyDennisHong’steam?A.YORI. B.DAVID. C.SAFFiR. D.DARwIn⁃OP.()71.WhatisspecialaboutDARwInaccordingtothetext?A.Itstechnologyisthelatest.B.Itisapopularrobotfortheblind.C.Itisthefirsthuman⁃likerobot.D.Itsdesignisfreeforanyonetouse.()72.WhatdoesDennisHongencouragehisstudentstodo?A.Walkonthesaferside.B.Domoreforeducation.C.Keeptryingandlearning.D.Avoidmakingmistakes.第二节阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。FMyfamilyhasalwayshadfamilydinners,asfarasIcanremember.SinceIwasalittleboy,mymotherhasinsisted(坚持)thatweattendfamilydinnersatleastonceaweek.EverySunday,mymotherwouldpreparealotoffoodandbringittomygrandma’shouse.Wewouldwaitformorefamilymemberstocomebeforeeatingtogetheratthetable,mygrandma’sdinnertable.Iusedtofeelthatwasasillylittletradition.ButnowIfindit’sfantastictogettogetherasafamilytotalkaboutanythingandeverythingafteralongweekofschoolandwork.EverytimeIsitatthedinnertable,mygrandma’sdinnertable,Ilookaroundandfindsomanypeoplewhotrulyloveme.It’salovethatfeelssogood.Forme,dinnerisnotjustameal,butachancetoreconnectwitheachother.Ifinallyrealizethetruemeaningofthistradition.It’snotaboutthedinnersoractivities.It’saboutfamily,agroupofpeoplewhocareabouteachother.Allthememories(记忆)aroundmygrandma’sdinnertablewilllastforever.Now,I’malwaysexpectingSundaytoarrive.73.Howoftendothewriter’sfamilymembersgettogetherfordinner?(不超过5个词)
74.Whatdoesdinnermeantothewriter?(不超过10个词)
75.Whyis“mygrandma’sdinnertable”mentionedseveraltimesinthetext?(不超过10个词)
第四部分写(共两大题,满分25分)Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。76.Thelakeareaisr(丰富)inwildlifeanddrawslotsofpeople.
77.Myteacher’swordsinthelastlessonfilledmyh(心)withwarmth.
78.Everyt(学期)isanewbeginningforallthestudentsandteachers.
79.Johadherfirstt(品尝)ofAnhuicuisine(Huicai)duringhertravelinHuangshan.
80.TheShenzhou⁃17teamh(交)overtheirworktotheShenzhou⁃18teamonApril30th.
Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)假设你是李辉,上周你在学校举行的“消防安全日”活动中学会了灭火器的使用方法。请结合下图信息,写一篇英语短文,给校英文报投稿。要点:1.活动目的;2.灭火器的使用方法;3.你的体会。注意:1.短文须包含上述要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;2.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称;3.词数80~100(首句已为你写好,不计入总词数)。Lastweek,ourschoolcarriedoutFireSafetyDayactivities.
2024年安徽省初中学业水平考试英语答案及解析第一部分听力Ⅰ.1~5CCAABⅡ.6~10BAABCⅢ.11~15BACBCⅣ.16.share17.kind18.needs19.sense20.ourselves评分标准:1~20题每小题1分。16~20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情给分。第二部分语言知识运用Ⅴ.21~25DABDA26~30BACDC评分标准:21~30题每小题1分。Ⅵ.31~35ADCBB36~40ACDBA41~45DBADA46~50BCACD评分标准:31~50题每小题1分。Ⅶ.51~55GEDCA评分标准:51~55题每小题1分。第三部分阅读Ⅷ.56~58ADB59~62DDBC63~65BDA66~69BBCA70~72ADC73.Atleastonceaweek./EverySunday.74.Itisachancetoreconnectwitheachother.75.Becauseitistheplacefulloffamilylove.评分标准:56~75题每小题2分。73~75题的答案使用完整或简略形式均可。能答出关键词语即可给分。所提供的答案仅供参考,其它不同答案由各市酌情处理。其中第75题具有一定的开放性,考生可从主题意义或写作手法等方面作答。第四部分写Ⅸ.76.rich77.heart78.term79.taste80.handed评分标准:76~80题每小题1分。单词的首字母已在答题卡上给出,如考生从单词书写的完整性考虑,重新书写了首字母,不扣分。Ⅹ.OnepossibleversionLastweek,ourschoolcarriedoutFireSafetyDayactivities.Thepurposewastodrawourattentiontofiresafety.Amongtheactivities,howtouseafireextinguisherinterestedmemost.Whenweuseafireextinguisher,weshouldfirstshakeitafterpickingitup,andthenpulloffthesafetypinquickly.Assoonaswepointthetubeattherootofthefire,weareexpectedtopressdownonthehandleuntilweputoutthefire.Duringtheperiod,weshouldbecarefulenoughnottogethurt.FromtheactivitiesI’velearnedalotandrealizedtheimportanceoffiresafety.一、评分原则:1.本题总分为20分,按五个档次给分。2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,结合内容和语言表达,综合给定分数。3.考生可以根据要点适当发挥,加入细节及个人观点。4.词数少于80的,从总分中减去1分。5.拼写错误多,书写较差以致影响表达,在所确定档次的分数范围内减去1分。二、各档次的给分范围和要求:第五档(很好):(17~20分)涵盖所有内容要求,运用较多的语法结构和词汇,语言基本无误,有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑,内容充实,体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑,具备了较强的语言运用能力,完全达到了预期的写作目的。第四档(好):(13~16分)涵盖所有内容要求,运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,有少量错误,但不影响对所写内容的理解,运用了简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯、完整,表达清楚,基本达到了预期的写作目的。第三档(一般):(9~12分)基本完成了试题规定的任务,运用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求,有一些错误,但不影响对所写内容的理解,内容不够连贯,信息基本可以传达。第二档(较差):(5~8分)明显漏掉主要内容,语法结构简单,词汇贫乏,有较多的错误,影响对所写内容的理解,缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯,信息未能清楚传达。第一档(差):(0~4分)明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,有大量的错误,所写内容无法理解,信息未能传达。附:听力录音材料Ⅰ.短对话理解1.W:John,Iheardyouwenttotheartshow.Howdoyoufeelaboutit?M:Fantastic!IreallyliketheChinesepainting.2.M:Whatlovelyweatheritis!Lyingonthebeachorswimmingisagoodidea.W:Justlyingonthebeachisboring.AndIdon’tlikeswimming.Whynotplayvolleyball?M:That’sgreat.3.W:Tom,youlookunhappy.Anythingwrong?M:Ibrokemymum’sfavouriteglasswhenIwasplayingwiththecat.4.W:Excuseme.I’velostmystudentcard.WherecanIgetanewone?M:Youcangetoneattheservicecenter.It’sbehindthedininghallneartheofficebuilding.5.M:Goodevening.MayItakeyourorder?W:Amoment,please.I’mstillworkingonit.Anythingnewonthemenu?Ⅱ.长对话理解听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。W:Awonderfulspeech!Haveyouevermadeapublicspeechbefore?M:Yes.Imademyfirstspeechlastmonth.W:Canyout
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