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九年级2024-2025学年第二学期英语第一次月考时长:100分钟总分:100分第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。1.Whatistheboy'ssuggestion?A.Givingoutnotices.B.Puttingupsigns.C.Writingtothegovernment.2.WhatmadeBillysadthismorning?A.Asong.B.Amovie.C.Adream.3.Whatcantheboyseeatthebottomoftherivernow?A.Stones.B.Rubbish.C.Fish.4.WhatwaswrongwithGinalastFriday?A.Shehadaheadache.B.Shehadacaraccident.C.Shewasburnt.5.WheredidTinagofirst?A.Tothelibrary.B.Tothecoffeehouse.C.Tothedininghall.第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听第六段材料,回答第6、7题。6.Whattimedidtheaccidenthappen?A.Atabout7:00a.m.B.Atabout8:00a.m.C.Atabout9:00a.m.7.WhatwasMr.Lopezdoingwhenheheardtheloudsound?A.Wateringhisplants.B.Openingthewindows.C.Drivingacar.听第七段材料,回答第8、9题。8.WhatprizedidMinniewininthepaintingcompetition?A.Firstprize.B.Secondprize.C.Thirdprize.9.Whatwasdrawnintherighthalfofthepainting?A.Awaterfall.B.Afactory.C.Awindfarm.听第八段材料,回答第10、11题。10.WhendidKarenvisittheoldpeople'shome?A.InGrade7.B.InGrade8.C.InGrade9.11.WhatdoesKarenwanttobeinthefuture?A.Asinger.B.Adirector.C.Anartist.听第九段材料,回答第12至14题。12.Whatdayisittoday?A.Monday.B.Saturday.C.Sunday.13.HowisAlexgoingtotheparktomorrow?A.Bybus.B.Bycar.C.Bybike.14.WhatisAlexgoingtodointheparktomorrow?A.Plantsometrees.B.Cleanupthepark.C.Watchbirds.听第十段材料,回答第15至17题。15.HowlongdidMariostayinThailand?A.For7days.B.For10days.C.For14days.16.Whotooklotsofphotosofthelocalbuildings?A.Mario.B.Mario'smother.C.Mario'sfather.17.Whatistheringmadeof?A.Gold.B.Silver.C.Steel.听第十一段材料,回答第18至20题。18.WholikesreadingmagazinesinBrian'sfamily?A.Hisdad.B.Hisgrandpa.C.Hisgrandma.19.WheredidLukegetthenovel?A.Fromthelibrary.B.Fromthebookstore.C.Fromtherecyclingcenter.20.WhatdoesMattplantousetocreaterecycledart?A.Chalks.B.Napkins.C.Mail.第二部分阅读(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。AInternationalDayofFamiliesInternationalDayofFamiliesiscelebratedonMay15theveryyear.Itaimstoraisepeople’sattentiontopromote(促进)theharmony(和谐)andhappinessofthefamily.TocelebratetheInternationalDayofFamiliesthisyear,FamilyCenterwillholdsomefamilyactivities.Time:9:00a.m.-17:00p.m.onMay15thPlace:OnSouthInternationalSquareActivitiesforthefamilies☆Familysports.☆Readingaletterforyourfamily.☆Acookingcompetitionamongfamilies.Forfurtherinformation:visithttps://FamilyC1.Howlongdothefamilyactivitieslastfor?A.8hours. B.9hours. C.10hours.2.Whereisthetextmostprobablyfrom?A.Asciencebook. B.Atravelguide. C.Awebsitepage.BWangChih-hsun,ateenagerfromTaiwan,startedherownclothingbrandseveralyearsagodespitemanydifficulties.“Ifeellikesocietyisnotdoingenoughtosupportyoungentrepreneurs(企业家).”shesaid.“That’swhyIwanttobetheonewhostepsup.”In2022,shestartedanon-profit(非盈利的)organizationcalledGlobalBusinessGatheringtoprovidehelpandservicesforyoungentrepreneurs.“Weofferlecturesandone-on-onetutorials(辅导课),”Wangsaid.Thegroupinvitedsuccessfulentrepreneursforlecturesandpostedusefulcontentonsocialmedia.“Manypeoplesimplybelievethatalotofmoneyiswhatittakestostartabusiness,andtheyassumethatitmeanscomingfromarichfamily,”Wangsaid.“ButIdon'tthinkso.Anyonecantryaslongastheyaredetermined(有决心的),whichisofgreatimportancetorunabusiness.Forexample,thissummer,Ididthreepart-timejobstoearnmoneyformybusiness.Also,peoplecouldalwaystakeoutloans(贷款).”Shealsothinksthatthroughsocialmedia,youngTaiwanpeoplecanlearnfromtheChinesemainlandsincetherearemanybusinessmodels.WangalsoplanstoholdmoneymanagementcoursesinprimaryschoolsinruralareasofTaiwan.“LinQifeng,theformerchairmanofTaiwan’sleadingonlineretail(零售)companyMomo,reallyinfluencedme.Hesaidthathewantedtopassonhislearnedwisdomtomoreyoungpeople.Irealizedthatbeinganentrepreneurisnotjustaboutmoney.It’saboutgivingbacktosociety,”Wangsaid.Inthefuture,WanghopestostudybusinessintheUS.“Iwanttokeeponrunningthisorganizationtohelpasmanypeopleaspossible,”shesaid.3.WhydidWangChih-hsunstartherownclothingbrandandanon-profitorganization?A.Tomakealotofmoney.B.Tobecomefamous.C.Tosupportyoungentrepreneurs.4.AccordingtoWangChih-hsun,whatisimportantforpeoplewhowanttostartabusiness?A.Havingstrongdetermination.B.Gettingloansfromthebank.C.Havingmanyfollowersonsocialmedia.5.WhatdoesWangwanttodointhefuture?A.Startanonlineretailcompany.B.StudybusinessintheUK.C.Continuerunningherorganization.6.Whatisthemainideaofthepassage?A.AyoungentrepreneurmakingadifferenceB.Ashiningnon-profitorganizationC.WhatittakestobeayoungentrepreneurCRoadkillisacommonsighttohighwaysandsometimesincities.Itreferstoanimalsbeinghitbyvehicles(车辆).Astudyin2023measured,forthefirsttime,thedamageChina’sfast-developingroadnetworkishavingonanimalsinurban(城市的)areas.Previously,researchinChinahadfocusedonroadkillinnaturereserves.LiZhongqiuandhisteamfromNanjingUniversity’sSchoolofLifeScienceslookedattheproblemincities,whereroadkillcouldhaveanevenlargerimpact.TheychoseNanjing,withover9,700kilometersofpaved(铺好)roads,asthestudysubject.Nineroads,includingthreenationalhighways,totalingover224kilometers,werewatchedeverytwoweeksforayear.Theteamrecordedatotalof249individual(单独的)roadkillcases.Birdsaccountedfornearlyhalfthetotal,makingthemthemostsusceptiblegrouptoroadkill.Cats,dogsandblackbirdswerethethreemostcommonlykilledanimals.“Thismaybeduetothelargenumberofstray(流浪的)catsanddogsinurbanarea,”Lisaid.“Abandoned(被抛弃的)petsaremorelikelytowanderintotraffic.”Also,therearemanyblackbirdsinEastChinathatareattractedontoroadsbyinsectslikeflies,leadingtomoreaccidents.Roadkillincidents(事件)happenmoreofteninNovemberandJanuary,theteamfound.Thismaybebecause,forsomewarm-bloodedanimals,foodishardertofindatthistimesotheyhavetogooutandsearchforfoodmore.Roadkillhasresultedinthedecline(下降)ofurbananimalpopulationsand“mustbetakenseriously”,Lisaid.Theresearchersalsocallonpolicymakerstoputforwardrelatedtrafficregulations(条例)andanimalprotectrules,suchasspeedlimitsandtrafficcontrols.7.WhatisthefocusofthestudyconductedbyLiZhongqiuandhisteam?A.Damagecausedbybuildinghighways.B.Roadkillinurbanareas.CRoadkillinnaturalreserves.8.Whatdoestheword“susceptible”inParagraph4mostlikelymean?A.Unaffected. B.Acceptable. C.Easilyinfluenced.9.Whatdoresearcherssuggestdoingtoreduceroadkillincities?A.Increasingthenumberoftrafficlightsinruralareas.B.Settingspeedlimitsandcontrollingtrafficincities.C.Sendingstrayanimalsbacktonaturereserves.10.Whatwouldbethebesttitleforthepassage?A.Studyuncoversinfluencesofroadkill.B.Risingconcernsfornaturereserves.C.Increasedawarenessforstrayanimals.HistoriansbelievethattheChinesefirstbeganmakingthetraditionallanternsduringtheWesternHanDynasty.Lanternswhichusedtohavepracticaluseswereusedbothindoorsandoutdoors.___11___Theprotectionfromwindprovidedbythesilkorpaperkeptthelanternsfromgoingoutwiththewind.InancientChina,theywereusedtoprovidelight.___12___LanternsareusedtodecoratehomesandpublicplacesandhavebecomeasymbolofnationalprideinChina.Themostcommonkindofthelanternisthehanginglanterns.___13___Incities,youcanseelanternsdecoratingstreetlights,publicbuildingsandshops.Manyhomeswillalsohangafewlanternsontheirwindows,especiallyduringfestivalseasons.OnspecialdayssuchastheMid-AutumnFestival,youcanseeflyinglanterns.___14___Andtheyarebeautifultowatchandareoftensentinlargegroupsforamoreeye-catchingeffect.Lanterncelebrations,suchastheDragonBoatFestivalthattakeplacenearrivers,pondsandlakeswilloftenhavefloatinglanterns.Thiskindoflanterncomesinmanydifferentshapesandtheyareputinlargegroups.___15___A.Today,theyareusedonlyforbeautification.B.Theselanternsarelittocreateabeautifuleffectonthewater.C.Theyprovidedlightforreadingandworkinginthepast.D.TheyaresentintothenightskyoverChina.E.Theselanternsarehunginbothhomesandpublicplaces.第三部分语言运用(共三节,满分35分)第一节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。WhenIwasyoung,Ilovedtoreadbiographies(自传)ofsuccessfulpeople.Theyneverfailedtoencourageme.Andfromthem,Ialwaysfindone___16___characteristic-grit.So,what’sgrit?It’sthecourageandresolutionto___17___yourgoalsinthefaceofdifficulties.LiBaifromtheTangDynastylearnedthe___18___ofgritfromanoldwomansharpening(磨)aneedle.Hefinallybecameafamouspoet.Personally,developingthepowerofgritalsoledtowonderinmylife.PeoplearoundmeallknowthatIlikesingingandpublicspeakingverymuch.___19___onlyafewknowthatwhenIwasalittlegirl,Ihadhurtmyvocalcords(声带)badly.Teacherstoldmenotto___20___myhobbyinareasrequiringtheuseofmyvoice.ButhowcouldIgiveupso___21___?Ireallylovetosingandtalk!So,___22___courageandresolution,Iworkedhardtogothroughhardtraining.Afterseveralyears,myvoicewasslowlybacktonormalandIcouldtakepartinallkindsofactivitiesincludingmusicalperformancesandpublicspeaking.I’malsogladtosaythatmostofmyachievementshavetodowithsuchactivities.Thisisalso___23___Ihavethehonortobeoneofthespeakersheretoday.Grithasnotonlyhelpedindividuals(个人)aroundtheworldbecomethesuccessfulpeopleweknowoftoday,butalsohashelpedmeovercomedifficultiesandledmeonthepathto___24___mygoals.Thepowerofgritis___25___thateveryonecanhave.Itisthekeytounlockingnewwondersinyourlife.16.A.different B.dangerous C.common17.A.giveup B.cutoff C.stickto18.A.difference B.importance C.information19.A.But B.Or C.So20.A.stop B.develop C.change21.A.hardly B.slowly C.easily22.A.with B.at C.to23.A.whose B.what C.why24.A.exchange B.doubt C.achieve25.A.everything B.something C.nothing第二节(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。Asthesayinggoes,“Ifyoudon’tsucceedat____26____(one),tryagain.”Thisisquitetruewhenyou’retryingtolearnEnglish.LaiShixiong,____27____expertfromTaiwanProvince,hasastorytoshare.Likemanynon-native(非本土的)speakers,Laididn’tsucceed____28____hewasinhighschool.Heoncegotalowmarkof7outof100inanEnglishtest.HealmostgaveupEnglish,butthenhemetaclassmatewhowas____29____(talent)inEnglish.Surprisedbyhisclassmate’sbeautiful____30____(pronounce),LaidecidedtostartleaningEnglishalloveragainjust____31____ababy.Topronouncewords____32____(correct),Laistartedlearning48phoneticsymbols(音标).Everydayhe____33____(repeat)thenhundredsoftimes.Afterthat,hepracticedhardtoimprovehisspeaking.Notbeingabletofindapartnertopracticespeakingwith,Laijusttalkedto____34____(he)asifbewereintheconversation.Laialsothoughtofwaystoimprovehisotherskills.HeusedEnglishtodescribeeverythinghesaw.____35____(improve)writingskills,hekeptadiaryinEnglisheveryday.“Thereisnoshortcuttomasteringalanguage.Itreallytakestime.Youhavetopracticemore.”Laisaid.AfterallRomewasn’tbuiltinaday.第四部分读写综合(共2节,满分25分)第一节(共5小题:每小题2分,满分10分)阅读下面短文,根据短文内容回答问题。Asayoungchild,Iwasprettylazywhenitcametodoingchores.Ifmyparentsaskedmetodosomething,Iwoulddoit—notaproblem.ButIalwaysneededtobetoldtodothingsthatIcouldeasilysee.Thatundoubtedlyannoyed(使厌烦)myparents.EverySaturdayafternoon,mymotherdrovemetoanothertownforapianolesson.Duringmyhalf-hourlesson,she’drushtothenearbymarketandbuyaweek’sfood.Consideringmymomdrovemetwelvemilesthere,twelvemilesback,paidformylesson,andboughtmeacandy,Ishouldbethankfulenoughtohelpherbringthefoodintothehousewithoutbeingasked.ButIdidn’t.Withhomeworkweighingheavilyonmymindandwith“me”stillthecenterofmyworld,Igenerallyjustbroughtinasmallbagandthenrantomyroom,shutthedoorandstarteddoingmyhomework.Gradually,my“nothelping”becameabiggerandbiggerproblemformebecausewhatIlearnedatschoolmademerealizethatIwasavoidingresponsibility.Iwantedtochange.SooneSaturdayImadeadecision.Gettingoffthecar,Ididn’tgoawaydirectlybuthelpedmymother.I’msureMomthankedmethatday,butwhatIremembermostisthevaluablesenseofsatisfactionIfeltafterhelpingher.Unknowntoher,I’dalreadydecidedtoofferhelpeverySaturday.Fromthatdayon,Ireallydid.36.Whatdidthewriterusetobelike?_______________________________________37.Didthewriteralwayshelpaftershopping?_______________________________________38.Whatdidthewriterusuallydoafterarrivinghomefromhis/herlesson?_______________________________________39.Whydidthewriterwanttochange?_______________________________________40.Whatcanyoulearnfromthewriter’sexperience?_______________________________________第二节写作(共1小题,满分15分)41.当前,劳动课程已在我国中小学校得以普遍实施。假设你是李华,请结合表格内容,向你的美国笔友Mike介绍你校本学期开设的两门劳动课程,并告诉他你所选择的一门,谈谈你的劳动经历和心得体会。SchoolLabourCoursesYourexperienceandfeelingsCoursesAims★Doingchores(家务):cooking&recyclingthewasteTolearntolookafterourselvesandprotecttheenvironment…★Vegetable-plantingTostudyplantsandknowaboutfarming注意:1.短文必须包含表格中的所有要点,可适当发挥;2.词数:100左右;3.作文中不得出现真实的人名和校名;4.开头已给出,不计入总词数。DearMike,Howiseverythinggoing?Thisterm,ourschoolhasofferedtwolabourcourses.____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Yours,LiHua
九年级2024-2025学年第二学期英语第一次月考参考答案第一节(听力答案省略)第二部分阅读(共两节,满分30分)第一节(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)阅读下列材料,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项。A【1~2题答案】【答案】1.A2.CB【3~6题答案】【答案】3.C4.A5.C6.AC【7~10题答案】【答案】7.B8.C9.B10.A【11~15题答案】【答案】11.C12.A
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