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~2026学年度第二学期期中质量检测七年级英语(2026.04)本试卷共9页,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。注意事项:答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。第一部分听力(共四节,满分30分)第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。1.A.AliceisfromtheUK.B.Tonygetsupatsix.C.Theschooltripiswonderful.2.A.Don’ttakephotoshere.B.Turnoffthelights.C.Pleasesendmeanemail.3.A.Lindaisn’tgoodatdancing.B.Theycan’tplaychess.C.Idon’thaveavolleyball.4.A.Doyouoftenplaysports?B.Isthereasupermarket?C.Wouldyoulikesomeapples?5.A.Howmuchistheyogurt?B.Whosebadmintonisthis?C.What’syourfavouriteanimal?第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。6.HowdoesLisagotothesportscenter?A.Onfoot.B.Bybicycle.C.Bybus.7.WhatdoesLilyhave?A.Atennisracket.B.Aping-pongbat.C.Abasketball.8.WhoneedshelpwithEnglish?A.Jim.B.Amy.C.Sandy.9.WhendoesTinawanttogotothecinema?A.ThisFridaymorning.B.ThisFridayafternoon.C.ThisSaturdaymorning.10.Wheredotheyhavetheconversation?A.Atschool.B.Inashop.C.Inahospital.第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。11.WhatdidSarahdolastnight?A.WatchedTV.B.Didherhomework.C.Wrotealetter.12.Whatcolorisapolarbear’sfur?A.Black.B.White.C.Nocolor.13.What’sapolarbeargoodat?A.Running.B.Walking.C.Swimming.14.Whatdopolarbearseat?A.Fish.B.Eagles.C.Ice.15.Whataretheytalkingabout?A.ATVshow—AnimalWorld.B.Polarbearsindanger.C.Dangerouspets.第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。16.WheredoesBethwork?A.Inashop.B.Inalibrary.C.Inahospital.17.WhatdidBethoftendoatnightbefore?A.WatchedTV.B.Playedcomputergames.C.Readbooks.18.HowlongisBeth’sdanceclass?A.Onehour.B.Twohours.C.Threehours.19.HowdoesBethfeelnow?A.Happyandhealthy.B.Sadandworried.C.Boredandtired.20.WhatmayBethtakewithher?A.Acomputer.B.Somefruit.C.Somecandies.第二部分语音(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)在每题所给的四个选项中,选出划线字母发音不同的一项。21.A.fitB.arriveC.timeD.while22.A.yesB.yellowC.tryD.yard23.A.breadB.sweaterC.heavyD.great24.A.yearB.wearC.hearD.near25.A.growB.downC.howD.brown第三部分阅读(共三节,满分50分)第一节阅读理解(共12小题;每小题2.5分,满分30分)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。A26.Whatcanstudentsdointheactivity?A.Eathamburgers.B.Orderasalad.C.CookChinesefood.D.Makeasalad.27.IfonepicksOptionA,whenshouldhearrive?A.At9:00a.m.onApril18.B.At3:00p.m.onApril18.C.At9:00a.m.onApril19.D.At3:00p.m.onApril19.28.Howmuchshouldtwomembersandonenon-memberpayforOptionB?A.¥80B.¥85C.¥140D.¥145BToday,Englishsignsareeverywhereinourdailylife.Let’slearnsomecommonones!Onthestreet,youcanseemanytrafficsigns.STOPtellscars,bikesandpeopletostop.meansyoucan’tputyourcarorbikethere.Whenyou’reridingabiketoschool,youmustbecareful.Whenyouseea,youmustnotturnleft,butgostraight(直行)orturnrightinstead.Ifthereisa,youshouldslowdownandwatchoutforpeoplecrossingtheroad.means“Danger!”or“Becareful!”Thatsignremindsusthattheremightbesomethingdangerousinfront,likeasharpbend(急转弯),roadwork,orotherdangers.Inbuildingslikehospitals,ENTERiswhereyougoin,andEXITisthewayout—thisisveryimportantinemergencies(紧急情况),suchasinfires(火灾)orearthquakes(地震).Whenyougoshoppingforclothes,“S”(small),“M”(medium)and“L”(large)showsizes.Youmightsee—ithelpsyougoonlineforfree.IfyouseethesignVIP,doyouknowwhatitmeans?Thesesignsareshortandeasytounderstand.WhatotherEnglishsignsdoyouknow?Nexttime,trytofindthemaroundyou.29.HowdoesthewriterintroduceEnglishsignsinthetext?A.Bygivingexamples.B.Bylistingnumbers.C.Bytellingreasons.D.Byaskingquestions.30.What’stheruleforthesign?A.Nophotos.B.Noparking.C.Noplaying.D.Nopainting.31.Whichsigncanguideyoutoleavequicklywhenthecinemacatchesafire?32.Whichofthefollowingshowsthestructureofthetext?CAnimalsareourclosefriends.Weknowthatguidedogshelpblindpeoplemovearoundandfinishdailytasks.Now,somehorsescandothesamejob.DigbyisasmallAmericanhorse.ItisthefirstguidehorseinEngland.ItsownerisablindmancalledMohammedPatel.Patelisscaredofdogs,sohechoosesDigbyashisguide.DigbyreceiveslotsoftrainingwithPatel.Itlearnstowalkatagentle(轻柔的)speedandleadPatelalongthestreets.ItalsohelpsPatelgetbooksfromshelves(架子)andpickoutclotheswhenhegoesshopping.Digbyisnotsmallatall.Itisabout0.8meterstall,soitcan’tenterPatel’soffice.Whenitistakentotheoffice,itknocksoff(撞倒)thingsondesks.SoPatelhastosaygoodbyetoDigby.Hefeelshelosesafriend.Later,Digbygetsanewrole.Ithelpsblindpeoplevisitsomewell-knownplacesinLondon.Weknowaguidedogcanworkforaround8years.Butaguidehorsecanworkfornearly40years,whichmakesita“lifelongfriend”forpeople.33.WhydoesPatelchooseDigbyashisguide?A.BecauseDigbyisverytall.B.Becauseguidedogsaretooexpensive.C.BecausePatelthinksdogsarescary.D.BecausePatelloveshorsesverymuch.34.WhatcanNOTwelearnaboutDigbyfromParagraph2?A.Itwalksslowlyandgently.B.IthelpsPatelgetbooksfromshelves.C.IthelpsPatelwithshopping.D.IttakesPateltoschooleveryday.35.HowdoesPatelfeelwhenhehastoleaveDigby?A.Surprised.B.Unhappy.C.Excited.D.Relaxed.36.Whatcanwelearnfromthetext?A.Guidehorsesworklongerthanguidedogs.B.DigbyisthefirstguidehorseinAmerica.C.PatelsaysgoodbyetoDigbybecausehedoesn’tlikeit.D.Guidehorsescanonlyhelpwithdailytasksathome.37.Whatcanbethetitleforthetext?A.ABlindMan’sDailyLifeB.TheWorkingLifeofGuideDogsC.HowtoTrainaGuideHorseD.ASpecialGuideHorseNamedDigby第二节阅读六选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。Expertssaythatstudentsusuallyneedeighttotenhours’sleepatnight.38SomeChineseparentsareusuallyhappytoseetheirchildrenstudyinglate.39Butnotallparentsarehappyaboutthisbecausethousandsofstudent“earlybirds”inChinahavetogetupbeforesixeverymorning.Areportshowsthatwithout(没有)agoodnight’ssleep,studentsmaygettiredmoreeasily.40.Toomuchhomeworkisnottheonlyreasonwhystudentsstayuplate.4142,Sosomecleverstudentsneverstudylate,andtheycanworkwellinclass.A.It’simportanttohavegoodstudyhabits.B.WeshouldgotobedearlyinsteadofwatchingTVtoolate.C.Theythinktheirchildrenworkveryhard.D.WatchingTVorplayingonlinegamestoomuchisalsoareason.E.ButmostChinesestudentsdonotgetenoughsleep.F.Manystudentsfeelsleepyinclassandcan’tfocusonlearning.第三节标题匹配(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)阅读下面五个语段,从给定的选项中选择一个最符合其主旨的标题。每个语段只对应一个最佳标题。A.ACuteRobotFriendB.MyDreamJobC.HousesAroundtheWorldD.ASmartHelperE.TeainChina()43.Today,thereisanewtechcalledDeepSeek.Ithasasmartbraintoanswerquestions.Itworkswellbutcostslittle.Itsmodel,DeepSeek-R1,worksouthardproblemsinourlives.Manypeopleuseittoworkbetter.Later,itmayhelpoldpeopleanddoctors.()44.ThereisaspecialrobotfromJapancalledNICOBO.Itisnotforcleaningorworking.Instead,itisafriendforlonelypeople.NICOBOlookslikeaball,anditcanturnaround,nod,andlookatyou.Itcanalsosaysomewordsandtellsomestories.ManypeopleinJapanlikeitverymuch.()45.Peopleliveindifferentkindsofhousesaroundtheworld.WangHuilivesinacavehouseinShanxi.Itiscoolinsummerandwarminwinter.John’sfamilylivesinanicehouseinSweden.Itiswarmandstrong.Teddy’shouseisonthewaterinThailand.Hegoesoutbyboateveryday.()46.TeaisoneofthemostpopulardrinksinChina.Therearemanykinds:greentea,blacktea,Oolongteaandwhitetea.Peoplesaythereare10,000kinds,butwemainlydrinkthese.Doctorssaygreenteaisgoodforus,soweshoulddrinksomeeveryday.()47.Hello,I’mLiXuanfromJinan.Idreamofbeingapainter.IlovepaintingbecauseIcanshowmyfeelingsbydrawingpictures.Ioftensitbythewindowanddrawthebluesky,whiteclouds,andthesmallyard.IwillkeeppractisingandIbelieveIcanbeagoodpainterinthefuture.第四部分语言运用(共三节,满分30分)第一节补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)阅读下面对话,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。A:Welcometoourrestaurant!Hereisamenuforyou.48B:Letmehavealook.A:Sir,mayItakeyourorder?B:Yes.I’dlikesomesoup.A:49B:I’dlikebeefsoup.50A:Yes.Therearesometomatoesinit.B:OK.I’dlikeabowlofbeefsoup.A:Wouldyoulikericeorsteamedbuns(馒头)togowiththebeefsoup?B:51A:OK.WehaveMapotofu.Wouldyouliketotryit?B:Yes,please.What’sthetotal?A:Justamoment,please.Abowlofbeefsoup,twosteamedbuns,andaplateofMapotofu.Thetotalamountis45yuan.B:Isee.52A:Thankyou,sir.Enjoyyourmeal!48.A.Whatwouldyoulikefordinner?B.Whatdoyouusuallyhavefordinner?C.Canyouhelpme?D.Whereareyoufrom?49.A.Howmanybowlsofsoupwouldyoulike?B.Wouldyoulikericeordumplings?C.Howdoyoulikebeefsoup?D.Whatkindofsoupwouldyoulike?50.A.Doyouhaveanyspecialstoday?B.Canyoumakebeefsoup?C.Whataboutsomechickensoup?D.Arethereanyvegetablesinthebeefsoup?51.A.Somerice,please.B.Twosteamedbuns,please.C.Ihavenoidea.D.No,Iwouldn’t.52.A.They’retooexpensive.B.Nicetomeetyou.C.Here’sthemoney.D.You’rewelcome.第二节完形填空(共8小题;每小题1分,满分8分)阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。Arichwomanhasanexpensiveandbeautifulvase(花瓶).Andshelovesitverymuch.Shewantsto53herbedroomthesamecolorasthevase.Somepainterstrytomix(调配)thecolorright,butnobodycomes54enoughtomakethewomanhappy.Atlast,apainternamedPetercomesalong.Helooksveryconfident(自信的),sayinghecanmixthecolorright.Andhe55.Thewomanispleased(满意的)withtheresultandgivesPeteralotof56tothankhim.Afterthat,Peterbecomesvery57.58manyyears,Peter’ssonaskshim,“Dad,59didyougetthosewallstomatchthevasesoperfectly?”“Easy,myson,”Peteranswers.“Ipaintedthe60!”Thestorytellsusthatifwelookatitinadifferentlight,theproblemmaybeeasiertosolve(解决).53.A.drawB.writeC.paintD.turn54.A.easilyB.closeC.quicklyD.near55.A.succeedsB.finishesC.losesD.leaves56.A.booksB.moneyC.vegetablesD.energy57.A.poorB.kindC.helpfulD.famous58.A.LaterB.AgoC.BeforeD.After59.A.HowB.WhoC.WhyD.What60.A.wallsB.doorC.vaseD.window第三节词汇语法运用(共11小题;61—65题,每小题1分,66—71题,每小题2分,满分17分)61.Manykindsofanimalsliveinthe______(森林).62.Youshouldseta______(目标)andworkonituntilyoumakeit.63.Mymotherenjoysthe______(甜的)breadwithacupofcoffeeasafternoontea.64.______(在…之中)thesethreestories,Ilikethefirstonebest.65.Weareold______(足够地)tolookafterourselves.66.Donot______(eat)toomanysweetthings.67.Ourclassroomisonthesecondfloor,and______(their)isonthethirdfloor.68.Lindaoften______(hurry)toschoolwithouteatingbreakfast.69.It’sveryimportant______(improve)oureatinghabits.70.Chinese______(dish)alwayslookgreat.71.Ourteachersarekindand______(friend)tous.第五部分写作(共两节,满分35分)第一节情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。72.A:________________________?B:Becausethey’reverydangerous.73.A:________________________?B:No,youcan’t.It’snotgoodforthem.74.A:________________________.B:Threetimesaweek.75.A:Wouldyoulikedumplingsornoodles?B:________________________.76.A:HowdoesJennyexercise?B:________________________.第二节作文(满分25分)刘教授将要来你校做一场关于如何选择经典阅读的讲座。假如你是学生会主席,请发表一份告全体同学书。内容包括:1.讲座时间:五月十五日下午2:00~4:002.讲座地点:学校礼堂3.听讲座时同学们需要遵守的规则(至少四条)读经典的好处并倡议同学们多读经典作品注意:1.词数100左右,开头、结尾已给出,不计入总词数;2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;3.不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。Dearstudents,WeareveryexcitedthatProfessorLiuwillcometoourschooltogivealecture(讲座)onhowtochooseclassic(经典的)reading.Let’sworktogethertocreateanenjoyableenvironmentforthisactivity.Thanksforyourcooperation(配合)!StudentUnion2025~2026学年度第二学期期中质量检测七年级英语试题参考答案(2026.04)第一部分听力1-5:BACAC6-10:ABBBCA11-15:BCCAB16-20:CBBAB
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